Let $A>0$ be fixed and consider $X_1,\ldots$ i.i.d. nonnegative random variables such that $E[1/X_1]<\infty$.
Is is true that $$\sup_{a\in \big (0,\frac A{\sqrt n} \big]} \sum_{i=1}^n 1_{X_i>a} \frac{a^3}{X_i^2}$$ converges in probability to $0$ ?
With the crude bound $\sum_{i=1}^n 1_{X_i>a} \frac{a^3}{X_i^2} \leq \frac {A^2}n \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{X_i}$, the supremum is clearly $O_P(1)$. In my research I need it to be $o_P(1)$, but I haven't been able to prove it.