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I have posted a few questions on MSE, most notably this one, which revolve around the same issue and have received no answers, so I decided to ask the same here.

In the following, $K(A, n)$ is the minimal Eilenberg-MacLane Kan complex given by $$K(A, n)_q=\{\text{normalized $n$-cocycles } \Delta^q \to A\}.$$ This is constructed via the Dold-Kan correspondence, which applies to show that $\mathsf{sAb}(K(A, n), K(A', n)) \cong \mathsf{Ab}(A, A')$. In light of proving the existence of an isomorphism $\mathsf{sSet}(K(A, n), K(A', n))\cong \mathsf{Ab}(A, A')$, the following issue arises.

Is every simplicial map $\Phi:K(A, n) \to K(A', n)$ a simplicial homomorphism of groups? May in his book Simplicial objects in Algebraic Topology, Lemma 25.1, claims that the answer is positive and I know no other reference for this result. The proof is by induction: in degrees $q<n$, $K(A, n)_q=\{\ast\}=K(A', n)_q$ and there is nothing to prove. By minimality, $K(A, n)_n=\pi_n(K(A, n))$ and $\pi_n(\Phi)=\Phi_n$, hence $\Phi_n$ is a homomorphism. Now come the problems: suppose for $q\ge n+1$ that we have proven that $\Phi_{q-1}$ is homomorphism. Consider $\Phi_q(x+y)$ and $\Phi_q(x)+ \Phi_q(y)$. These two elements of $K(A', n)$ have the same boundary by the induction hypothesis. May concludes that they are homotopic. Why this? We know that $\pi_q(K(A', n)\cong 0$, but $\Phi_q(x+y)$ and $\Phi_q(x)+ \Phi_q(y)$ need not determine elements of $\pi_q(Y)$, since there is no reason why their boundary should be constant at the base-point. If we accept that they are homotopic relative their boundary, then they are equal by minimality and the argument is concluded. I don't want to sound skeptical about May's proof, but I am not convinced, and I even don't know if the result itself is true.

Why I doubt this is true:

  • It is well-known that $[K(A, n), K(A', n)]\cong H^n(K(A, n), A')\cong \mathsf{Ab}(A, A')$. If the isomorphism above holds true, then we get an isomorphism $[K(A, n), K(A', n)] \cong \mathsf{sSet}(K(A, n), K(A', n))$. (And this groups can be finite.) Using the explicit form of the involved isomorphisms, this essentially says that two homotopic maps $K(A, n) \to K(A', n)$ are equal, which I highly doubt to be true, even using minimality of the codomain.
  • The only other place I know in literature where something similar is treated is a book (in German) by Lamotke, Semisimpliziale Algebraische Topologie. In Theorem (Satz) VIII.3.11, he proves that every simplicial map $K(A, n) \to K(A', n)$ is homotopic to a homomorphism and every two homotopic homomorphisms are equal. Although this does not rule out the possibility that every simplicial map $K(A, n) \to K(A', n)$ be a homomorphism on the nose, if this is true, why not saying it?

So, my question boils down to: is this fact true, and if yes, why?

[Edit: I have now removed the question on MSE.]

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  • $\begingroup$ Here is a kind of loose suggestion; I haven’t tried to implement this. When you have two maps from disks with the same restriction to the boundary, you can create a map from a sphere by gluing them together. If this map from the sphere is nullhomotopic, i.e. extends over the ball, then the two maps from the disks are homotopic (rel the boundary of the disk). In the present situation, one has to make sense of this simplicially, of course. $\endgroup$
    – Dan Ramras
    Commented Aug 12, 2022 at 23:05
  • $\begingroup$ @DanRamras thanks for your comment. So the idea, if I understand correctly, would be: call $Y=K(A', n)$ and $u=\Phi_q(x+y): \Delta^q \to Y$ and $v=\Phi_q(x)+\Phi_q(y): \Delta^q \to Y$ the simplices involved. Since $u|_{\partial \Delta^q}=v|_{\partial \Delta^q}$, there is a map from the pushout $\partial\Delta^{q+1}$ of the two inclusions $\partial \Delta^q \hookrightarrow \Delta^q$ to $Y$, this is a map $\partial \Delta^{q+1} \to Y$, i.e., an element of $\pi_q(Y)\cong 0$, hence nullhomotopic, hence can be filled to a map $\Delta^{q+1} \to Y$, which is identified to a homotopy from $u$ to $v$. $\endgroup$
    – carciofo21
    Commented Aug 13, 2022 at 19:37
  • $\begingroup$ So the argument seems fine to me, anyway. So you believe that this is true. The same argument would apply to show that maps to a minimal Eilenberg-MacLane space of type $n$ are completely determined by their $\pi_n$. $\endgroup$
    – carciofo21
    Commented Aug 13, 2022 at 20:52
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    $\begingroup$ I think it can't be quite this simple, although this is roughly what I had in mind. The pushout of of the two inclusions of $\partial \Delta^q$ into $\Delta^q$ (as a simplicial set) isn't really $\partial \Delta^{q+1}$, is it? This seems wrong when $q=1$, because the pushout will have just two vertices and two non-degenerate 1-simplices. $\endgroup$
    – Dan Ramras
    Commented Aug 13, 2022 at 21:25
  • $\begingroup$ @DanRamras mh, yes, I see the issue. Maybe there is a way to glue this two maps into a horn and fill this horn. But such an approach would probably not even use the condition $\pi_q(Y)\cong 0$, and this seems suspicious. $\endgroup$
    – carciofo21
    Commented Aug 13, 2022 at 22:31

1 Answer 1

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Denote by $$\def\U{{\sf U}}\def\sSet{{\sf sSet}}\def\sAb{{\sf sAb}}\def\Ch{{\sf Ch}}\def\N{{\sf N}}\U\colon \sAb→\sSet$$ the forgetful functor, which is the right adjoint of $$\def\Z{{\bf Z}}\Z\colon\sSet→\sAb$$ and by $$Γ\colon \Ch→\sAb$$ the Dold–Kan functor given by the right adjoint of the normalized chains functor $$\N\colon\sAb→\Ch.$$ Thus $$\def\K{{\sf K}}\K(A,n)=\U Γ(A[n]).$$

We have a chain of isomorphisms of sets $$\sSet(\K(A,n),\K(A',n))≅\sSet(\U Γ A[n], \U Γ A'[n])≅\Ch(\N\Z\U Γ A[n],A'[n])$$ (by adjunctions $\Z⊣\U$, $\N⊣Γ$), $$\def\Hom{\mathop{\sf Hom}}\def\H{{\sf H}}\Ch(\N\Z\U Γ A[n],A'[n])≅\Hom(\H_n(\N\Z\U Γ A[n]),A')$$ (since both chain complexes vanish below degree $n$), and if $n>0$, we have $$\Hom(\H_n(\N\Z\U Γ A[n]),A')≅\Hom(A,A')$$ (by the Hurewicz theorem). This proves the desired isomorphism $$\sSet(\K(A,n),\K(A',n))≅\Hom(A,A').$$ (If $n=0$, then $\Hom$ refers to maps of sets, not groups.) The same argument also proves that $$\sSet(\K(A,m),\K(A',n))≅0$$ (i.e., the only simplicial map factors through the basepoint) if $m>n>0$. If $m<n$, then the Hurewicz theorem is not applicable, and in this case we have nontrivial cohomology operations.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! This is for sure useful to get to my final aim, but I don't see wheter this implies or not that every simplicial map between those two spaces is in fact a homomorphism (which would have an independent interest for me) $\endgroup$
    – carciofo21
    Commented Aug 14, 2022 at 15:47
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    $\begingroup$ I see from your answer that there is an isomorphism $\mathsf{sSet}(K(A, n), K(A', n))\cong \mathsf{Ab}(A,A')$. At the monent I can not really be convinced that this map is precisely the map which assigns to a morphism $A\to A'$ the induced map $K(A,n)\to K(A',n)$. This is clear following your chain of isomorphisms up to a certain point, but is this map preserved when we invoke the Hurewicz theorem? $\endgroup$
    – carciofo21
    Commented Aug 14, 2022 at 16:07
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    $\begingroup$ @carciofo21: This is not the question that you asked in the main post (i.e., whether every map of simplicial sets K(A,n)→K(A',n) is a morphism in sAb, which is already answered by the above argument), but the answer to the new question is also affirmative. You can either deduce it directly from the explicit description of the Hurewicz natural isomorphism (see Goerss–Jardine, Section III.3), or, alternatively, observe that the only natural automorphisms of the functor A,A'↦Hom(A,A') are the multiplications by 1 or -1, and the sign is positive in our case by inspection. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 14, 2022 at 17:02
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    $\begingroup$ @carciofo21: My argument does prove that May's claims are correct (at least a posteriori). If you want to complete May's argument directly, you can simply argue that K(A,n) is (n+1)-coskeletal, which you can prove directly from the definition. Coskeletality implies the claim about simplices with the same boundary being equal. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 22, 2022 at 4:57
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    $\begingroup$ @მამუკაჯიბლაძე: I added some explanations to the answer. The Hurewicz theorem requires $n>0$. The argument works fine if $n>n'$, in which case it proves that all maps are trivial, as indicated in the new version. If $n<n'$, then the Hurewicz theorem is not applicable because $\K(n,A)$ is not $n'$-connected. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2022 at 16:45

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