$\DeclareMathOperator\Pin{Pin}\DeclareMathOperator\Spin{Spin}$This follows on from Definition of Pin groups?, which notes there are three different definitions of the Pin group; thankfully, all of which "yield the same definition of the spin group".
However, it seems there are even multiple definitions of spin groups:
Elements with spinor norm 1:
The wikipedia page on Clifford Algebras:
The pin group $\Pin_V(K)$ is the subgroup of the Lipschitz group $Γ$ of elements of spinor norm 1, and similarly the spin group $\Spin_V(K)$ is the subgroup of elements of Dickson invariant 0 in $\Pin_V(K)$.
Lawson, H. Blaine, Jr.; Michelsohn, Marie-Louise: Spin geometry. Princeton Mathematical Series, 38. Princeton University Press, Princeton, NJ, 1989. xii+427 pp.:
The Pin group of $(V,q)$ is the subgroup $\operatorname{Pin}(V,q)$ of $P(V,q)$ generated by the elements $v \in V$ with $q(v) = \pm 1$. The associated spin group of $(V,q)$ is then defined by $$\operatorname {Spin} (V,q)=\operatorname {Pin} (V,q)\cap \operatorname {Cl} ^{0}(V,q)$$
Products of elements of norm 1:
The ncatlab page on spin group
The Pin group $\Pin(V;q)$ of a quadratic vector space, def. 2.1, is the subgroup of the group of units in the Clifford algebra $Cl(V,q)$ $$\Pin(V,q) \hookrightarrow \mathrm{GL}_1(Cl(V,q))$$ on those elements which are multiples $v_1 \cdots v_{n}$ of elements $v_i∈V$ with $q(v_i)=1$.
The wikipedia page on Spin groups:
The pin group $\operatorname {Pin} (V)$ is a subgroup of $\operatorname{Cl} (V)$'s Clifford group of all elements of the form $$v_{1}v_{2}\cdots v_{k}$$ where each $v_{i}\in V$ is of unit length:$q(v_{i})=1$. The spin group is then defined as $$\operatorname{Spin} (V)=\operatorname{Pin} (V)\cap \operatorname{Cl}^{\text{even}}$$
These two definitions seem equivalent on positive (or complex) quadratic forms; but over the space $\mathbb{R}^2$ spanned by $e_1, e_2$ with quadratic form $q(e_1) = q(e_2) = -1$, it seems to me that the two definitions disagree on whether $e_1e_2 \in \operatorname{Spin}(V,q)$:
- Definition 1 permits it since the spinor norm of $e_1e_2$ is either $N(e_1e_2) = (-e_2)(-e_1)e_1e_2 = 1$ or $N'(e_1e_2) = e_2e_1e_1e_2 = 1$ (using the two possible meanings of spinor norm from Definition of Pin groups?)
- Definition 2 excludes it because there is no $v\in V$ with $q(v) = 1$. In fact, definition 2 permits only one element of the spin group, $1$!
Am I right to claim that definition 2 is just incorrect? Or are there really two competing notions of spin groups which intentionally disagree on whether $e_1e_2 \in \operatorname{Spin}(V,q)$?