(Below I conflate quantifiers and quantifier symbols in a couple places for readability; I can change that if that actually makes things less readable.)
For the purposes of this question, an $n$-ary quantifier is a (class) function $\mathscr{Q}$ assigning to each (nonempty) set $X$ a family $\mathscr{Q}X$ of subsets of $X^n$ which is stable under permutations of $X$. Given a logic $\mathcal{J}$ and a quantifier $\mathscr{Q}$, let $\mathcal{J}^\mathscr{Q}$ be the extension of $\mathcal{J}$ gotten by "adding $\mathscr{Q}$;" the full definition is a bit tedious, but (for a structure $\mathfrak{M}$ with underlying set $M$) the key clause is $$\mathfrak{M}\models\mathscr{Q}x.\varphi(x)\quad\iff\quad\{a\in\mathfrak{M}:\mathfrak{M}\models\varphi(a)\}\in\mathscr{Q}(M).$$
We can then say that a quantifier $\mathscr{Q}$ is $\mathcal{J}$-definable iff there is a finite set $\Phi$ of $\mathcal{J}$-sentences augmented with a new quantifier symbol $\mathsf{Q}$ such that $\mathscr{Q}$ is the unique quantifier, when used to interpret $\mathsf{Q}$, which makes each sentence in $\Phi$ a tautology. For example, letting $\mathcal{L}_0$ be the quantifier-free fragment of first-order logic, each of the standard unary quantifiers $\forall$, $\exists$, and $\exists!$ is $\mathcal{L}_0$-definable:
$\Phi_\forall=\{\mathsf{Q}x.\top, (\mathsf{Q}x.U(x))\rightarrow U(a)\}$
$\Phi_\exists=\{\neg\mathsf{Q}x.\perp, U(a)\rightarrow(\mathsf{Q}x.U(x))\}$
$\Phi_{\exists!}=\{\mathsf{Q}x.U(x)\wedge U(a)\wedge U(b)\rightarrow a=b,\neg\mathsf{Q}x.\perp, \mathsf{Q}x.x=a\}$
(See here for more discussion of this.) More interestingly (pathologically?), the "infinitely-many" quantifier $\exists^\infty$ is definable over full first-order logic; since it provides a possible solution to this question, I'll put the proof of this at the end of this answer.
I'm curious whether there is a quantifier which is not definable over $\mathcal{L}_0$ but is definable over $\mathcal{L}_0^{\mathscr{Q}_1,...,\mathscr{Q}_n}$ for some definable-over-$\mathcal{L}_0$ quantifiers $\mathscr{Q}_1,...,\mathscr{Q}_n$. More snappily:
Main question: Over $\mathcal{L}_0$, if a quantifier is definable relative to definable quantifiers, is it definable?
A natural follow-up question is to understand what properties of a general logic $\mathcal{J}$ lead to an answer one way or the other, but $\mathcal{L}_0$ seems like an already-interesting starting point. Note that although this question isn't directly about quantification over sets, there is a fundamentally higher-order aspect to this idea of quantifier definability, hence the "higher-order-logics" tag.
EDIT: perhaps the following sub-question may be more easily attacked:
Secondary question: Can $\exists^\infty$ be defined over $\mathcal{L}_0$ using a set of formulas each of which contains exactly one instance of "$\mathsf{Q}$"?
My hope is that this secondary question has a relatively easy negative answer, which would constitute helpful progress towards the expected answer ("yes, and $\exists^\infty$ does the job") to the main question.
A natural candidate
I didn't notice this at first, but there is a natural candidate for a positive answer: the quantifier $\exists^\infty$. This is definable over $\mathsf{FOL}$ (and so is "two-step-definable" over $\mathcal{L}_0$) as follows.
The sentences $$\mathsf{Q}x.U(x)\rightarrow\mathsf{Q}x.[U(x)\vee V(x)],$$ $$\neg\mathsf{Q}x.\perp,$$ and $$[\neg\mathsf{Q}x.U(x)]\rightarrow\neg\mathsf{Q}x.(U(x)\vee x=a)$$ are "tautologized" by exactly those $\mathscr{Q}$ which are "sub-quantifiers" of $\exists^\infty$; the first sentence corresponds to monotonicity, while the second and third rule out the sufficiency of a finite sets of satisfying instances.
Now let $\nu$ be a first-order sentence which only has infinite models not using the unary relation symbol $U$; the sentence $$\nu^U\rightarrow\mathsf{Q} x. U(x)$$ (where $\nu^U$ is the relativization of $\nu$ to $U$ as usual) gets us the rest of the way there.
This results in a finite defining set for $\exists^\infty$ ... over $\mathsf{FOL}$. However, there is no obvious way to bring this down to $\mathcal{L}_0$, specifically because of the last step.