Let $S$ be a K3 surface with an involution $\iota_S$, $E$ an elliptic curve with an involution $\iota_E$. Assume the fixed locus of $S$ under $\iota_S$ contains $N>0$ disjoint curves. Note the fixed locus of $E$ under $\iota_E$ contains 4 points. $\iota_S\times \iota_E$ acts on $S\times E$ as an involution, and the fixed locus, say $L$, contains $4N$ disjoint curves. Blow up $S\times E$ on $L$, to get $\widetilde{S\times E}$ and extend $\iota_S\times \iota_E$ to $\widetilde{S\times E}$ to get an involution $\widetilde{\iota_S\times\iota_E}$.
In a paper of Voisin, p.280, Lemma 1.3's proof: since $\widetilde{\iota_S\times\iota_E}$ acts as $-1$ on $\pi_1(\widetilde{S\times E})\cong\mathbb Z^2$, $\pi_1(\widetilde{S\times E}/\widetilde{\iota_S\times\iota_E})=1$. But I wonder why? I don't think in general $\pi_1(X/G)=\pi_1(X)^G$.