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In the notes Geometric Wave Equations by Stefan Waldmann at page 70 they have

Having a fixed Lorentz metric $g$ on a spacetime manifold $M$ we can now transfer the notions of special relativity, see e.g. 50 , to $(M, g)$. In fact, each tangent space $\left(T_{p} M, g_{p}\right)$ is isometrically isomorphic to Minkowski spacetime $\left(\mathbb{R}^{n}, \eta\right)$ with $\eta=\operatorname{diag}(+1,-1, \ldots,-1)$, by choosing a Lorentz frame: there exist tangent vectors $e_{i} \in T_{p} M$ with $i=1, \ldots, n$ such that $$ g_{p}\left(e_{i}, e_{j}\right)=\eta_{i j}=\pm \delta_{i j} . $$

We say that two manifolds $M$ and $N$ are isometric if for all $v \in T_pM$ and a map $\phi:M\rightarrow N$ such that

$g(v,v)=g'(\phi_*v,\phi_*v)$ where $g$ is a metric in $M$ , $g'$ is a metric in $N$ and $\phi_*$ denotes a pushfoward.

Now the definition of isometry refers to two manifolds, but in the notes they are claiming an isometry between a manifold and a tangent space.

How can a tangent space be isometric to a manifold?

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    $\begingroup$ The notes you refer to are stating that the tangent spaces of the Lorentz manifold are isometric to Lorentz space i.e. this is an isometry of vector spaces with bilinear forms. The definition isn't constructing them, this is basically part of the definition of a Lorentz manifold. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 1:48
  • $\begingroup$ @Ryan Budney the notes are saying that tangent space are isometric to Minkosky manifold. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 2:13
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    $\begingroup$ Not the definition above. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 2:48
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    $\begingroup$ Minkowski space is a vector space with a bilinear form that has signature $(+1,-1,\dots,-1)$. Given any two such spaces, there is a linear isometry between the two. Each tangent space of $M$ is a vector space. A Lorentz metric assigns to each tangent space $T_pM$ a bilinear form with signature $(+1,-1,\dots,-1)$. Therefore, on a Lorentz manifold, there is an isometry from Minkowski space to $T_pM$. $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented May 18, 2022 at 4:13
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    $\begingroup$ Asked and answered (with the answer accepted by the OP) here: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/709181/… . That accepted answer was posted seven hours before the OP re-posted the same question here. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 12:00

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I think you are confused by two different uses for the word "isometry".

There is first the notion of a linear isometry between vector spaces equipped with a non-degenerate bilinear form. This is the notion that is used on page 70 of the paper you refer to. It simply says that, for a Lorentz metric $g$ on a manifold $M$, for every $m\in M$ the tangent space $(T_mM,g)$ is linearly isometric to the Minskowsky space $(\mathbb{R}^n,\eta)$.

There is then the notion of an isometry between two pseudo-riemannian manifolds, that is a smooth map $\phi:M\to N$ such that for every $m\in M$ the tangent map $d\phi_m:T_mM\to T_{\phi(m)}N$ is a linear isometry.

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  • $\begingroup$ At page 64 example 2.1.22 he defined Minskowsky spacetime as a manifold not as vector space. $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 14:36
  • $\begingroup$ @amiltonmoreira would you refuse to consider $\mathbb{R}^n$ as a vector space because several pages before it had been considered as a manifold? Every finite dimensional vector space equipped with a nondegenerate pairing is an example of a pseudo-riemannian manifold. Example 2.1.22 of loc.cit. essentially says this (it is even written "constant metric", with "constant" emphazised). $\endgroup$
    – DamienC
    Commented May 18, 2022 at 14:50
  • $\begingroup$ $R^n$ can be a manifold without being a vector space $\endgroup$ Commented May 18, 2022 at 17:11
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    $\begingroup$ A manifold is something that locally looks like a finite dimensional R-vector space. As such, any finite dimensional R-vector space is a manifold. I don't understand what you don't understand. $\endgroup$
    – DamienC
    Commented May 19, 2022 at 16:03

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