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I cross-post a question that has not been answered on MSE, see here.

Consider the Milnor hypersurface $H_{ij}$, i.e., the smooth hypersufrace in $\mathbb CP^i \times \mathbb CP^j$ for fix pair of integers $j \ge i\ge 0$ defined by

$$H_{ij}= \left\{{z_0: \ldots :z_i)} \times {(\omega_0: \ldots :\omega_j) \in \mathbb CP^i \times \mathbb CP^j \; | \; z_0\omega_0+ \ldots +z_i\omega_i=0}\right\}. $$

Question. How can one prove that $H_{11}$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb CP^1$?

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    $\begingroup$ Take one of the projections to $\Bbb{P}^1$. The question is certainly more appropriate to MSE. $\endgroup$
    – abx
    Commented Mar 17, 2022 at 16:36
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    $\begingroup$ @abx The question was not answered there after 19 days. $\endgroup$
    – Will Sawin
    Commented Mar 17, 2022 at 17:37
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    $\begingroup$ Alternatively, the map $P^1\to P^1\times P^1$ defined by $[a:b]\mapsto ([a:b],[-b:a])$ is a biholomorphism onto your subvariety (inverse to the first projection suggested by abx). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 17, 2022 at 23:40
  • $\begingroup$ @Jonny Evans. Thank you for your comment. If you don't mind can you explain please in more details in answer using approach of projections? Thank you $\endgroup$
    – UserIn
    Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 10:01
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    $\begingroup$ @Egery: I just mean that if you write $f:P^1\to P^1 \times P^1$ for $f([a:b])=([a:b],[-b:a])$ and $g\colon P^1\times P^1\to P^1$ for $g([a:b],[c:d])=[a:b]$ then $g\circ f$ is the identity. If $V=f(P^1)$ then $V$ is your subvariety, so the corestriction of $f$ and the restriction of $g$ to $V$ are both homeomorphisms (with $f^{-1}=g$). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 16:11

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Since the question was not answered on MSE, I will provide a short answer here.

The expression $H_{ij}$ is a bi-homogeneous polynomial of bi-degree $(1, \, 1)$, hence it defines an effective divisor in the complete linear system $|\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^i \times \mathbb{P}^j}(1, \, 1)|$. Moreover, a simple computation with derivatives shows that this divisor is smooth.

In particular, when $i=j=1$, we have a smooth divisor $D$ in the complete linear system $|\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1}(1, \, 1)|$. The rational map associated with this linear system is the usual embedding of $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$ as a smooth quadric in $\mathbb{P}^3$. Thus, the curve $D$ corresponds to a smooth hyperplane section of this quadric, namely, a smooth conic, which is isomorphic (not just homeomorphic) to $\mathbb{P}^1$.

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you for your time and for your help! $\endgroup$
    – UserIn
    Commented Mar 18, 2022 at 22:30

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