5
$\begingroup$

For which $(a,b,n) \in \mathbb{Z}^3$ satisfying $a+b=n$ does $\frac{\Gamma(z+1)}{\Gamma(x+1)\Gamma(y+1)}$ approach a limit as $(x,y,z) \rightarrow (a,b,n)$ in $\mathbb{C}^3$, and what is that limit? (The case where $a$, $b$, and $n$ are all negative is the problematic one.) What if we restrict to $\{(x,y,z) \in \mathbb{C}^3 \ | \ x+y=z\}$?

I'm guessing that where the limit exists it agrees with the "windmill" shown in https://i.sstatic.net/osFsj.png (taken from page 197 of Hilton, Holton, and Pedersen's "Mathematical Reflections: In a Room with Many Mirrors").

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ What is a case with $a,b,n < 0$ where you expect limit other than $0$ to exist? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 16:35
  • $\begingroup$ Did you intend to write $a+b=n+1$ and $x+y=z+1$ in the definitions? Otherwise the proposed function does not extend the binomial coefficients (note that $\Gamma(n) = (n-1)!$). $\endgroup$
    – pregunton
    Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 16:52
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @pregunton: Oops, I forgot the offset between $n!$ and $\Gamma(n)$. I've fixed that in the statement of the problem. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 17:09
  • $\begingroup$ @Gerald Edgar: For $a,b,n < 0$ my intuition is that the limit should not exist without the restriction $x+y=z$, but that's just a hunch. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 17:10

2 Answers 2

6
$\begingroup$

There's nothing special about the gamma function; the failure of the limit to exist when $a$, $b$, and $n$ are negative is exactly the same as the failure of $$\lim_{(x,y,z)\to(0,0,0)} \frac{xy}{z}$$ to exist.

I will renormalize in a way that I think makes clearer what's going on. First let's look at $$\lim_{(x,y,z)\to(0,0,0)} \frac{\Gamma(z)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)}.$$ We have $$\frac{\Gamma(z)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)} = \frac{xy}{z}\frac{\Gamma(z+1)}{\Gamma(x+1)\Gamma(y+1)}.$$ Since $\Gamma(z+1)/\Gamma(x+1)\Gamma(y+1)$ is analytic and nonzero near $(0,0,0)$, $\Gamma(z)/\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)$ behaves just like $xy/z$ near $(0,0,0)$. In particular, if you restrict to $x+y=z$, this is $xy/(x+y)$, for which the limit as $(x,y)\to(0,0)$ does not exist.

Now let's consider $$\lim_{(x,y,z)\to(0,0,0)} \frac{\Gamma(z-a)}{\Gamma(x-b)\Gamma(y-c)}$$ where $a$, $b$, and $c$ are nonnegative integers. We have $$\frac{\Gamma(z-a)}{\Gamma(x-b)\Gamma(y-c)} = \frac{\Gamma(z)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)}\cdot \frac{(x-b)\cdots (x-1)(y-c)\cdots (y-1)}{(z-a)\cdots(z-1)}.$$ The second factor on the right is analytic and nonzero near $(0,0,0)$, so $\Gamma(z-a)/\Gamma(x-b)\Gamma(y-c)$ behaves just like $\Gamma(z)/\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)$ (and thus like $xy/z$) near $(0,0,0)$.

$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

Note that, for integer $m \ge 0$, we have poles in $\Gamma$ with known residues: $$ \Gamma(-m+t) = \frac{(-1)^m}{(-m)!\,t} + O(1)\,\qquad\text{as } t \to 0\text{ in }\mathbb C $$ Now suppose we are given integers $a,b,n \le 0$. Now as $t \to 0$ in $\mathbb C$ we have \begin{align} \Gamma(a+t) &= \frac{(-1)^a}{(-a)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(b+t) &= \frac{(-1)^b}{(-b)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(n+t) &= \frac{(-1)^n}{(-n)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \frac{\Gamma(n+t)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= \frac{(-1)^{n-a-b}(-a)!(-b)!t}{(-n)!}+O(t^2) \\ \lim_{t \to 0}\frac{\Gamma(n+t)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= 0. \end{align} But also \begin{align} \Gamma(a+t) &= \frac{(-1)^a}{(-a)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(b+t) &= \frac{(-1)^b}{(-b)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(n+t^3) &= \frac{(-1)^n}{(-n)!\,t^3}+O(1) \\ \frac{\Gamma(n+t^3)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= \frac{(-1)^{n-a-b}(-a)!(-b)!}{(-n)!t}+O(1) \\ \lim_{t \to 0}\frac{\Gamma(n+t^3)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= \infty. \end{align} So we conclude that $$ \lim_{(x,y,z)\to (a,b,n)} \frac{\Gamma(z)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)} $$ does not exist.


Now consider the case $x+y=z$. Again as $t \to 0$ in $\mathbb C$ we have

\begin{align} \Gamma(a+t) &= \frac{(-1)^a}{(-a)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(b+t) &= \frac{(-1)^b}{(-b)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(n+2t) &= \frac{(-1)^n}{(-n)!\,2t}+O(1) \\ \frac{\Gamma(n+2t)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= \frac{(-1)^{n-a-b}(-a)!(-b)!t}{2(-n)!}+O(t^2) \\ \lim_{t \to 0}\frac{\Gamma(n+2t)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b+t)} &= 0. \end{align} But \begin{align} \Gamma(a+t) &= \frac{(-1)^a}{(-a)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(b-t+t^3) &= \frac{-(-1)^b}{(-b)!\,t}+O(1) \\ \Gamma(n+t^3) &= \frac{(-1)^n}{(-n)!\,t^3}+O(1) \\ \frac{\Gamma(n+t^3)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b-t+t^3)} &= \frac{-(-1)^{n-a-b}(-a)!(-b)!}{(-n)!\,t}+O(t) \\ \frac{\Gamma(n+t^3)}{\Gamma(a+t)\Gamma(b-t+t^3)} &= \infty. \end{align} And thus $$ \lim_{(x,y) \to (a,b)}\frac{\Gamma(x+y)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)} $$ does not exist.


What about the edited version with $\Gamma(z+1)/(\Gamma(x+1)\Gamma(y+1))$? For the first part, we needed only $a,b,n \le 0$ so translating all by $1$ will apply to the edited version.
For the second part, if we have $x+y=z$ we can write $$ \frac{\Gamma(x+y+1)}{\Gamma(x+1)\Gamma(y+1)} = \frac{x+y}{xy}\;\frac{\Gamma(x+y)}{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)} $$ and apply the case that I did here. Of course we must note that $x,y,x+y$ are not $0$ and not $\infty$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Does this address the edit (which makes the ratio actually binomial coefficients)? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 17:16
  • $\begingroup$ @Sam Hopkins: Yes, I think Gerald's answer addresses the edit. (I'm guessing your comment was a response to an earlier version of Gerald's answer that didn't include the paragraph that begins "What about the edited version?".) I'm inclined to approve Gerald's answer unless someone sees a problem with it. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 18:02
  • $\begingroup$ I suppose I would feel even happier if someone could find an analytic derivation of the values for the extended binomial coefficient function given by Hilton et al. (probably not original with them), perhaps using a specific yet natural path along which $(x,y,z)$ approaches $(a,b,n)$, but I suppose that's a different question. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 22, 2022 at 18:10

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .