Say that a structure $\mathcal{M}$ is amorphic iff for every finite $\overline{a}\in\mathcal{M}$ and bi-infinite $X\subseteq\mathcal{M}$ there is some automorphism $\alpha\in Aut(\mathcal{M})$ fixing $\overline{a}$ pointwise but not respecting $X$ (that is, either $\alpha[X]\not=X$ or $\alpha[\mathcal{M}\setminus X]\not=\mathcal{M}\setminus X$). An amorphic structure can be "given an amorphous copy" in a symmetric extension of the universe; precisely, there is a symmetric extension $V\subset N\subset V[G]$ and a structure $\mathcal{A}\in N$ such that $\mathcal{A}$'s underlying set is amorphous in $N$ but $V[G]\models\mathcal{A}\cong\mathcal{M}$.
Now say that a countable complete theory $T$ is $\kappa$-amorphic iff there is a $\mathcal{M}\models T$ with $\vert\mathcal{M}\vert=\kappa$, and amorphic iff $T$ is $\kappa$-amorphic for some $\kappa$. For example, the empty theory is trivially $\kappa$-amorphic for every $\kappa$. I'm curious about what implications exist between the various amorphicities. To get started, my main question is:
Does amorphic imply $\omega$-amorphic?
Note that $\omega$-amorphicity is a $\Sigma^1_3(L_\omega)$ property, while on the face of things amorphicity is $\Sigma^0_2(V)$, so this would be a great improvement in terms of the complexity of amorphicity. I vaguely recall a negative result due to Shelah here, but I can't find it (and "due to Shelah" doesn't really narrow the search space much).