4
$\begingroup$

Suppose the closed surface $S$ is the envelope of a family of planes $$\cos\alpha_1(t)x+\cos\alpha_2(t)y+\cos\alpha_3(t)z-p(t)=0$$ where $\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3$ are the angles formed by the normal to the plane and the coordinates axes, and the parameter $t$ is a variable point of the unit sphere $S^2\subset\mathbb{R}^3$.

Then how do we calculate the area of $S$, and the volume of the body bounded by the surface $S$.

Actually this is an exercise in Zorich's Mathematical Analysis which I cannot solve. And in the textbook, it's said that the area $\sigma=\int_{S^2}p(t)\mathrm{d}\sigma$, and the volume $V=\frac{1}{3}\int_S p(t)\mathrm{d}\sigma$ (the $S$ on the book is not $S^2$). But I think these formulas are both wrong, because the dimension of $p(t)$ is weird. The $p(t)$ in the definition of the family of planes is the dimension of the length (L). But $\sigma=\int_{S^2}p(t)\mathrm{d}\sigma$ is not the dimension of $\mathrm{L}^2$ (awkward).

And I don't even know how to solve the equation of the envelope surface, which seems to be determined by the equation: $$\left\{\begin{aligned} &f(x,t)=0 \\ &D_\xi f(x,t)=0~~~~~\forall t\in S^2, \xi\in TS^2_t \end{aligned}\right.$$ where $f(x,t)=\cos\alpha_1(t)x+\cos\alpha_2(t)y+\cos\alpha_3(t)z-p(t)$.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The formula for the volume $V$ is correct. As you noted, the formula for the area $A$ is not. I'll check a source that might have the correct formula and get back to you. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 8, 2021 at 0:19

1 Answer 1

6
$\begingroup$

I wasn't able to find a source to cite for the correct formulae, but it turns out that it's not that hard to work out the answer directly using differential geometry.

First, a little notation: Let $u:S^2\to\mathbb{R}^3$ be the usual inclusion mapping. A support function $p:S^2\to\mathbb{R}$ defines a family of planes $u\cdot x - p(u) = 0$, and the formula for the envelope of this family of planes is $$ x = p\,u + \nabla p,\tag1 $$ where $(\nabla p)(u)\in T_uS^2\subset\mathbb{R}^3$ is the gradient of $p$ computed with respect to the standard (round) metric on $S^2$ induced by the inclusion $u:S^2\to\mathbb{R}^2$. Then the area $2$-form induced on $S^2$ by the inclusion $x:S^2\to\mathbb{R}^3$ is simply given by the scalar product $$ \mathrm{d}A = \tfrac12\,u\cdot(\mathrm{d}x\times \mathrm{d}x). $$ Substituting (1) into this formula, we find that $$ \mathrm{d}A = \bigl(p^2 - p\Delta p + \det(\nabla^2p)\bigr)\,\mathrm{d}\sigma, $$ where $\mathrm{d}\sigma$ is the standard area form on $S^2$, $\nabla^2p$ is the second covariant derivative of $p$ (often called the Hessian of $p$), and $\Delta p$ is the negative trace of $\nabla^2p$, i.e., the geometer's Laplacian (which is a positive operator).

Meanwhile, for any immersion, $x:S^2\to\mathbb{R}^3$, Stokes' Theorem implies that the (algebraic) volume enclosed by $\Sigma = x(S^2)$ is given by $$ V = \frac16\int_{S^2} x\cdot (\mathrm{d}x\times \mathrm{d}x), $$ and computation using (1) above yields $$ x\cdot (\mathrm{d}x\times \mathrm{d}x) = 2p\bigl(p^2 - p\Delta p + \det(\nabla^2p)\bigr)\,\mathrm{d}\sigma = 2p\,\mathrm{d}A.$$
Hence $$ V = \frac13 \int_\Sigma p\,\,\mathrm{d}A, $$ in accordance with the source the OP cites.

This suggests that the area formula that the OP doubted might be corrected to $A = \int_{S^2} p^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma$. (At least this would have the correct homogeneity with respect to scaling.) However, that is not the case. The correct formula is found to be as follows: Using harmonic analysis to expand $p$ in eigenfunctions of $\Delta$, i.e., $p = p_0 + p_1 + \cdots + p_k + \cdots$ where $\Delta p_k = k(k{+}1)\,p_k$, one finds that $$ \int_{S^2} p^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \int_{S^2} {p_k}^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma, $$ while $$ A = \int_{S^2} \bigl(p^2 - p\Delta p + \det(\nabla^2p)\bigr)\,\mathrm{d}\sigma = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(1{-}k)(2{+}k)}2\int_{S^2} {p_k}^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma. $$ Thus, we only get $A\le \int_{S^2} p^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma$, with equality if and only if $p$ is constant (i.e., $p = p_0$).

Here is how one can see that the above formula for $A:C^\infty(S^2)\to\mathbb{R}$ is correct: Note that, as a function of $p\in C^\infty(S^2)$, the integral $A$ is a quadratic form that is invariant under the action of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$. Now, as a representation of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$, $C^\infty(S^2)$ is a sum of the irreducible finite dimensional representations $\mathcal{H}_k$ $(k\ge0)$, where $\mathcal{H}_k$ is the space of eigenfunctions satisfying $\Delta u = k(k{+}1)u$ and is also the space of functions got by restricting the harmonic polynomials of degree $k$ on $\mathbb{R}^3$ to the $2$-sphere. Each representation $\mathcal{H}_k$ occurs with multiplicity $1$. Hence, the invariance of $A$ under the action of $\mathrm{SO}(3)$ implies that $\mathcal{H}_k$ and $\mathcal{H}_j$ are $A$-orthogonal when $j\not=k$. This implies that $$ A = \int_{S^2} \bigl(p^2 - p\Delta p + \det(\nabla^2p)\bigr)\,\mathrm{d}\sigma = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \mu_k \int_{S^2} {p_k}^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma. $$ for some constants $\mu_k$. To evaluate the constant $\mu_k$, it suffices to compute $A$ for $p = p_k = \mathrm{Re}\bigl((x+iy)^k\bigr)$ and compare the result with $\int_{S^2}{p_k}^2\,\mathrm{d}\sigma$. Using standard spherical coordinates, this is a straightforward exercise in vector calculus, yielding the values of $\mu_k$ that are displayed above.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ A little question. In the formula $\mathrm{d}A=\frac{1}{2}u\cdot (\mathrm{d}x\times \mathrm{d}x)$, what is $\mathrm{d}x$? a vector? or what? And also I think for any vector $v$, we have $v\times v=0$. $\endgroup$
    – Ngiap
    Commented Jul 13, 2021 at 16:18
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Ngiap: No. $\mathrm{d}x$ is the differential of the position vector function $x:S^2\to\mathbb{R}^3$, so it's a $1$-form with values in $\mathbb{R}^3$. In fact, $$\frac12\,\mathrm{d}x\times\mathrm{d}x = \begin{pmatrix} dx_2\wedge dx_3\\dx_3\wedge dx_1\\dx_1\wedge dx_2\end{pmatrix}.$$ It's not zero. So $$dA = \tfrac12 u\cdot(dx\times dx) = u_1\,dx_2\wedge dx_3 + u_2\,dx_3\wedge dx_1 + u_3\,dx_1\wedge dx_2\,. $$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 13, 2021 at 16:55

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .