Note : this is a crosspost from the Mathematics StackExchange, as suggested by this meta post.
Let $X$ be an $n$-connected ($n\geqslant1$) CW-complex and $Y$ be a $k$-connected ($k\geqslant1$) CW-complex. My goal is to prove the following isomorphism : $$\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)\cong\pi_{n+k+1}(X)\oplus\pi_{n+k+1}(Y)\oplus[\pi_{n+1}(X),\pi_{k+1}(Y)],$$ with $[\;\cdot\;,\;\cdot\;]$ denoting the Whitehead product (here, it is understood that we take the whitehead product of the subgroups $\pi_{n+1}(X)<\pi_{n+1}(X\times Y)$ and $\pi_{k+1}(Y)<\pi_{k+1}(X\times Y)$).
So far, I have done the following. (Do let me know if I have done any mistake !)
We can always assume, up to a homotopy equivalence, by the hypothesis on $X$ and $Y$, that their respective $n$ and $k$ skeletons are of the following form : $$\text{Sk}_nX=\{\ast\}\qquad\text{and}\qquad\text{Sk}_kY=\{\ast\}.$$ In particular, $X$ and $Y$ only have cells in dimensions $\geqslant n+1$ and $\geqslant k+1$ respectively. Therefore, the product $X\times Y$ has only cells starting in dimension $n+1$ or $k+1$, accordingly to which one is the smallest, and that cells in dimensions $\leqslant n+k+1$ come from cells of either $X$ or $Y$, but not both. Therefore, we get : $$\text{Sk}_{n+k+1}(X\times Y)\subset X\vee Y,$$ and thus the pair $(X\times Y,X\vee Y)$ is $(n+k+1)$-connected.
I then tried using a part of the exact sequence of the pair :
$$\dots\longrightarrow\pi_{n+k+2}(X\times Y,X\vee Y)\overset{\partial_\ast}{\longrightarrow}\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)\overset{\imath_\ast}{\longrightarrow}\pi_{n+k+1}(X\times Y)\overset{\text{rel}_\ast}{\longrightarrow}\pi_{n+k+1}(X\times Y,X\vee Y)\longrightarrow\dots$$
We can use the $(n+k+1)$-connectedness of the pair to re-write the sequence as :
$$\dots\longrightarrow\pi_{n+k+2}(X\times Y,X\vee Y)\overset{\partial_\ast}{\longrightarrow}\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)\overset{k}{\longrightarrow}\pi_{n+k+1}(X)\oplus\pi_{n+k+1}(Y)\overset{\text{rel}_\ast}{\longrightarrow}0,$$
with $k$ being given by the composite of $\imath_\ast$ and of the isomorphism $\pi_\bullet(X\times Y)\cong\pi_\bullet(X)\oplus\pi_\bullet(Y)$.
Now, the sequence splits at $\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)$, since we have $p\circ\imath=\text{id}$ and $q\circ\imath=\text{id}$ in : $$X\vee Y\overset{\imath}{\longrightarrow}X\times Y\overset{p}{\longrightarrow}X\subset X\vee Y\qquad\text{and}\qquad X\vee Y\overset{\imath}{\longrightarrow}X\times Y\overset{q}{\longrightarrow}Y\subset X\vee Y,$$
by functoriality and by using that $\pi_\bullet$ sends products to products. We shall denote as $p_\ast\oplus q_\ast:\pi_{n+k+1}(X)\oplus\pi_{n+k+1}(Y)\to\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)$ the splitting retraction. Therefore, by an algebraic lemma (not exactly the Splitting lemma, but something rather similar), we obtain : $$\pi_{n+k+1}(X\vee Y)\cong\text{Im}(p_\ast\oplus q_\ast)\oplus\ker(k).$$
Now, I recognized that $\text{Im}(p_\ast\oplus q_\ast)\cong\pi_{n+k+1}(X)\oplus\pi_{n+k+1}(Y)$ by construction, so I am left with computing $\ker(k)$. And here, I am completely stuck... How to recognize the Whitehead product as the kernel I am missing ?