Yes (for the first question). Assume at first that $k$ is even, and let $p$ be a prime divisor of $k+1$. Choose $n=p^s$. I claim that $a^n+(k+1-a)^n$ is divisible by $n$ for all $a=1,2,\ldots,k/2$. This is clear if $p$ divides $a$. If $a$ and $p$ are coprime, we get $$a^n+(k+1-a)^n=a^n-(a-k-1)^n$$
is divisible by $p^{s+1}$ which is called Lifting the Exponent Lemma and may be proved by induction in $s$: $$a^{pn}-(a-k-1)^{pn}=\left(a^{n}-(a-k-1)^{n}\right)(a^{n(p-1)}+\ldots+(a-k-1)^{n(p-1)}),$$
the second bracket is divisible by $p$ since all $p$ summands are congruent modulo $p$.
If $k$ is odd, take $n=p^s$ where $p$ is any prime divisor of $k$. The last summand $k^n$ is divisible by $n$, for the previous summands use the even case.