Quillen's Theorem A says that a functor $F:C \to D$ (between 1-categories) induces a homotopy equivalence of classifying spaces $BC \simeq BD$ if for every object $d$ in $D$ the fiber category $F/d$ has a contractible classifying space.
Quick reminder: the objects of $F/d$ are pairs $(c,\gamma)$ consisting of an object $c$ in $C$ and a morphism $\gamma:Fc \to d$ in $D$; and morphisms $(c,\gamma) \to (c',\gamma')$ in $F/d$ are given by all $f:c \to c'$ in $C$ satisfying $\gamma = \gamma' \circ Ff$ in $D$.
Here are two natural extensions of this result:
- If a group $\Gamma$ acts on $C$ and $D$ with $F$ an $\Gamma$-equivariant functor, then $F$ induces a $\Gamma$-equivariant homotopy equivalence between $C$ and $D$ provided its fibers are $\Gamma$-equivariantly contractible. I must confess that the only published version that I am aware of restricts to the case where $C$ and $D$ are $\Gamma$-posets, due to Thevanaz and Webb (pdf here)
- If we're working with a (lax/oplax) 2-functor between $2$ categories, then Quillen's Theorem A holds provided we define the lax fiber 2-categories $F/d$ correctly; I learned this from Bullejos and Cegarra's paper (pdf, see Thm 2)
My question is, is the union of 1 and 2 published somewhere? Which is to say, if I have a (lax/oplax) functor $F:C \to D$ between $2$-categories which is equivariant with respect to the action of some group $\Gamma$, and if its fiber 2-categories are $\Gamma$-equivariantly contractible, can I automatically claim that $F$ induces a $\Gamma$-equivariant homotopy equivalence between classifying spaces?
What I'm hoping to avoid is the scenario where the result is decipherable "only from the corresponding result for sheaves on $(\infty,1)$-topoi" or something similar. For reasons both psychological and mathematical, I'd like to restrict the categorical depth to $\leq 2$ if at all possible.