Let
- $\tau>0$;
- $d\in\mathbb N$;
- $v:[0,\tau]\times\mathbb R^d\to\mathbb R^d$ be Lipschitz continuous in the second argument uniformly with respect to the first with $v(\;\cdot\;,x)\in C^0([0,\tau],\mathbb R^d)$;
- $X^{s,\:x}$ denote the unique element of $C^0([s,\tau],\mathbb R^d)$ with $$X^{s,\:x}(t)=x+\int_s^tv(r,X^{s,\:x}(r))\:{\rm d}r\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in[s,\tau]\tag1$$ for $(s,x)\in[0,\tau]\times\mathbb R^d$ and $$T_t(x):=X^x(t):=X^{0,\:x}(t)\;\;\;\text{for }x\in E$$ for $t\in[0,\tau]$.
Now let $M$ be a $d$-dimensional embedded $C^1$-submanifold of $\mathbb R^d$ with boundary and $\partial M$ denote the manifold boundary of $M$.
I would like to know which assumption on $v$ we need to impose in order to ensure that $$T_t(\partial M)=\partial M\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in[0,\tau]\tag2.$$
Phrased differently, I want to find a condition on $v$ ensuring that $T_t$ moves a "particle" $x$ "along the boundary" $\partial M$ for all $t\in[0,\tau]$:
I've read that we need to assume that $$\langle\left.v\right|_{[0,\:\tau]\times\partial M},\nu_{\partial M}\rangle=0\tag3,$$ where $\nu_{\partial M}$ denotes the unique outer unit normal field on $\partial M$. However, I don't see why $(3)$ implies the $(2)$. And is $(3)$ an additional assumption at all? It seems like $(3)$ should always hold: Let $(s,x)\in[0,\tau]\times\partial M$. The claim $\langle v(s,x),\nu_{\partial M}(x)\rangle=0$ is equivalent to $v(s,x)\in T_x\:\partial M$, where $T_x\:\partial M$ denotes the tangent space of $\partial M$ at $x$. Now, if $$\gamma(h):=X^{s,\:x}(s+h)\;\;\;\text{for }h\in[0,\tau-s],$$ then $\gamma(0)=x$ and $\gamma'(0)=v(s,x)$. Thus, $v(s,x)\in T_x\:\partial M$. Am I missing something?