It is natural to ask if it is possible for the mapping cone $X\cup_\alpha CA$ to be homeomorphic to the mapping cone $X\cup_\beta CB$ with $A$ and $B$ nonhomeomorphic. Is there a standard go-to example for this?
I have vague memories that there are manifolds $M$ and $N$ that are not homeomorphic, but $M\times \mathbb{R} \cong N \times \mathbb{R}$, and it seems like it might be a mere hop, skip, and a jump from there to an example.