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My question is about establishing an inequality between population error and expected training error (i.e, expected training error < population error) for a model trained with gradient descent on a specific loss (not necessarily until convergence).

Assume we have training data $(X,Y) = \{(x_1,y_1), \ldots, (x_n,y_n)\}$ sampled i.i.d. from an unknown distribution $P$. Say we do ERM with a loss function $\ell$ and obtain $\hat f = \arg\min_{f\in\mathcal{F}} \frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(f(x_i),y_i)$. With $f^*$, we denote the true minimizer of the population loss. From basic ERM inequality, we have $$\frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(\hat f(x_i),y_i) \le \frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(f^*(x_i),y_i)\,.$$ Taking expectation on both sides, we have $$\mathbb{E}\left[\frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(\hat f(x_i),y_i)\right] \le \mathbb{E}\left[\frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(f^*(x_i),y_i)\right]\,.$$

Elaborating, my question is about obtaining a similar inequality with a model $\tilde f_t$ obtained after taking $t$ gradient steps to minimize the same loss, i.e., $\frac{1}{n}\sum_i \ell(f(x_i),y_i)$ with a learning rate $\eta$.

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  • $\begingroup$ And what do you expect? The rate of the convergence to the minimizer depends on the loss function and the starting point, so there is no reason to assume that there is a nice inequality depending just on the number of steps and $\eta$ that always holds. $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Aug 21, 2020 at 14:01
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for the confusion. I meant to compare the losses (not the rate of convergence) on the training samples and unseen test samples. I want to obtain an inequality on training loss and test loss for any intermediate gradient solution. For simplicity, we can assume ℓ is convex in parameters. For example, will this hold for a linear regression problem where ℓ is MSE? If not, can we construct a counter example? $\endgroup$
    – sgg
    Commented Aug 21, 2020 at 18:24
  • $\begingroup$ I understand that, but you may be still rather far from the minimizer after $t$ steps of the gradient descent in general, i.e., your last iteration $\tilde f_t$ may be only slightly better than $\tilde f_0$ and that one is just an arbitrary element of $\mathcal F$, so how do you expect to get any meaningful bound without additional assumptions? Am I missing something here? $\endgroup$
    – fedja
    Commented Aug 21, 2020 at 19:26
  • $\begingroup$ Intuitively, what I am aiming for is just an inequality between the test and train error at that $\tilde f_t$. I don't hope to have a low error (on either train or test data) in general, but rather a claim saying that the model has started overfitting to the training data more than its fit to the unseen data. I hope this clarifies. $\endgroup$
    – sgg
    Commented Aug 21, 2020 at 22:11

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