I was recently learning Furstenberg's theorem on random products of $SL(2,R)$ matrices, and came across with a simple example that confused me:
Considering random products of two matrices $A=\begin{pmatrix} 2 &0\\ 0 &1/2 \end{pmatrix}$ and $B=\begin{pmatrix} 0 &1\\ -1 &0 \end{pmatrix}$ with probability $1/2$ and $1/2$, it is mentioned in literature that the Lyapunov exponent for this random product is $0$. See, e.g., page 29 in Damanik's survey article: https://arxiv.org/abs/1410.2445
I understand that if we focus on a specific matrix element of the product, it has no well-defined limit. However, if we study its norm, say the Frobenius norm $||A||=\sqrt{\sum_{i,j}|a_{ij}|^2}$. I found that by taking average, this norm indeed grows exponentially, and the Lyapunov exponent is positive.
So my question is, why it is said "the lyapunov exponent for this example is $0$" in literature? Thanks!