I have a question on a certain property of morphisms between schemes endowed with Galois action. The motivation arises from a comment by Phil Tosteson on this question.

Phil wrote: "If the map factors through the projection, it factors uniquely (the projection is dominant) . So the factorization is automatically galois invariant..."

I want to understand how the Galois action on the morphism is concretly described in the given setting in order to be able to talk about "Galois invariant morphisms".

What we know. Let $X,Y$ be $k$-varieties or more generally $k$-schemes. Let $\overline{k}$ be algebraic closure of $k$ and $Gal(\overline{k}/k)$ the Galois group. We consider the fiber products $X \times_{\operatorname{Spec} \ k} \operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k}, Y \times_{\operatorname{Spec} \ k} \operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k}$.

We introduce the abbreviation $\overline{X}:=X \times_{\operatorname{Spec} \ k} \operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k}$.

Let $f: \overline{X} \to \overline{Y}$ a morphisms between the $\overline{k}$-schemes.

**QUESTION**: I order to decide if $f$ is "Galois invariant" we need to decede which Galois action on $f$ we consider. Do we have in this context "the action" (ie a canonical one)?

I know a couple possibilities to define an action of $f$ in different ways (see below) but I'm not sure which one is the standard one when the literature talks about "Galois invariant morphism".

Two ways I know to define an action on $f$:

**1.** Let $ \sigma \in Gal(\overline{k}/k)$. Then $\sigma$ acts on $\overline{X}$ via morphism $id_X \times (\operatorname{Spec} \ \sigma)$ with $\operatorname{Spec} \ \sigma: \operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k} \to \operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k}$. We use notation $\overline{\sigma}:=id_X \times (\operatorname{Spec} \ \sigma)$.

Then we can define on action on $f$ by $\sigma$ via "conjugation" $\sigma(f):= \overline{\sigma^{-1}} \circ f \circ\overline{\sigma}$

**2.** Consider the set of $\overline{k}$-valued points $\overline{X}(\overline{k}):=Hom(\operatorname{Spec} \ \overline{k}, \overline{X})$.

We can say two things:

-Galois group acts on $\overline{X}(\overline{k})$ via composition $\alpha \mapsto \alpha \circ (\operatorname{Spec} \ \sigma)$ for $\alpha \in \overline{X}(\overline{k})$ and $\sigma \in Gal(\overline{k}/k)$

-$f$ induces map $f(\bar{k}):\overline{X}(\overline{k}) \to \overline{Y}(\overline{k})$ by compostion $\alpha \mapsto f \circ \alpha$

Thus the Galois Group also acts on $f(\bar{k})$ via precomposition $f(\bar{k}) \mapsto f(\bar{k}) \circ (\operatorname{Spec} \ \sigma)$

The funny thing is that $\overline{X}(\overline{k})$ is dense in $\overline{X}$ and thus the Galois action from 2 on $f(\bar{k})$ induces by continuity & density a unique action on $f$.

That is we have (at least) two possibilities how Galois group could act on $Hom(\overline{X}, \overline{Y})$ and we can say that a $f \in Hom(\overline{X}, \overline{Y})$ is Gaois invariant if for every $\sigma(f)=f$ is fixed.

Back to my question: if we talk about "the" Galois action on $f$(or calling $f$ Galois invariant) which action is generally proposed if it is not explicitly explained as in my MO question: the 1 or the 2?