Prove that if $\sum_{t=1} ^{\infty} x_t = \infty$ where $x_t \in [0,1], \forall t$, then $\prod_{t = 1}^{\infty} (1-x_{t}) = 0$.
Many thanks.
P/S:
- Not homework but it is a part of the proof in a research paper I am reading.
- It could be trivial but I may have missed something and could not figure it out yet.
- I checked that this result is true for $p$-series.
- My initial idea is that let $a_t := \prod_{\tau=1}^t (1-x_{\tau}), \forall t$ and then try to prove that the series $\sum_{t}a_t$ converges but I have not been able to prove it yet.