I asked this question on MSE here. One person gave an answer but then he deleted it because my version of Clairaut-Schwarz theorem is stronger than his. I meant my version only requires the continuity of one mixed partial derivative while his may requires the continuity of all mixed partial derivatives.
It seems that this question will receive no answer in MSE, so I have no choice but to post it on mathoverflow.net.
I usually encounter Clairaut-Schwarz theorem where the mixed partial derivatives are of order $2$, i.e.
$\textbf{Clairaut-Schwarz Theorem:}$ Let $X$ be open in $\mathbb R^n$, $f:X \to F$, and $i, j \in\{1,\ldots,n\}$. Suppose that $\partial_j \partial_i f$ is continuous at $a$ and that $\partial_j f$ exists in a neighborhood of $a$. Then $\partial_i \partial_j f (a)$ exists and $$\partial_i \partial_j f (a) = \partial_j \partial_i f (a)$$
I would like to ask if Clairaut-Schwarz theorem holds in case the mixed partial derivatives are of arbitrary order $m$, i.e.
Let $X$ be open in $\mathbb R^n$, $f:X \to F$, and $m \in \mathbb N$. Suppose $j_1, j_2, \ldots, j_m \in\{1,\ldots,n\}$ and $\sigma$ is a permutation of $\{1, \ldots, m\}$. If $\partial_{j_1} \partial_{j_2} \cdots \partial_{j_m} f$ is continuous at $a$ and $\partial_{j_{\sigma(2)}} \cdots \partial_{j_{\sigma(m)}} f$ exists in a neighborhood of $a$, then $$\partial_{j_1} \partial_{j_2} \cdots \partial_{j_m} f (a)= \partial_{j_{\sigma(1)}} \partial_{j_{\sigma(2)}} \cdots \partial_{j_{\sigma(m)}} f(a)$$
Thank you so much for your help!