-2
$\begingroup$

What is the difference between the two sets of the following Cauchy integral, $$ \begin{split} \int_c t^k \cdot \frac{t+\zeta}{t-\zeta} \frac{dt}{t} &=4\pi i \zeta^k\\[8pt] \int_c \frac{1}{t^k} \cdot \frac{t+\zeta}{t-\zeta} \frac{dt}{t} &=0 \end{split} $$ from G. N. SAVIN (1968), Stress Distribution around Holes, NASA Technical Translation,
with respect to this one $$ \begin{split} \int_c t^k \cdot \frac{t+\zeta}{t-\zeta} \frac{dt}{t} &= 0\\[8pt] \int_c \frac{1}{t^k} \cdot \frac{t+\zeta}{t-\zeta} \frac{dt}{t} &=\frac{4\pi i}{\zeta^k} \end{split} $$

from V. G. UKADGAONKER and V. KAKHANDKI 2005. "Stress analysis for an orthotropic plate with an irregular shaped hole for different in-plane loading conditions—Part 1". Composite Structures, 70, 255-274.

In both cases $k \geq 1$ and $c$ is a unit circle. Also, in both cases, $\zeta^k = e^{k \theta i} = \cos k \theta + i \sin k \theta$

What consideration does each author perhaps used so that they came up with a slightly "opposite" relations? Is it something to do with the "internal region" or "external region" integration around the boundary? Why does $\zeta$ must be inside, i.e. $\zeta < 1$ for the first formulae to be correct, and for the second formulae the $\zeta > 1$?

$\endgroup$
10
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Cross posted from Math.SE $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 16:18
  • $\begingroup$ This is not a question about mathematics, but a question about the physics input that alone can determine how exactly the mathematical expressions you write are to be defined (via the precise choice of contour). On this site, you are most likely to obtain answers to questions about mathematics. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 18:00
  • $\begingroup$ This is about mathematic. I am trying to understand the meaning of this mathematical expression. Thanks! $\endgroup$
    – BeeTiau
    Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 18:11
  • $\begingroup$ I am sorry, but you are making exactly my point: Mathematics cannot provide you with a meaning for these expressions. At most, it can provide you with a few often-used definitions, as Alexandre Eremenko indicates in his answer. But it is a question of physics which of these definitions is the relevant one for you. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 21:11
  • $\begingroup$ Oh okay. I am asking this at the wrong place then, i.e. Mathematics cannot provide meaning for these mathematical expressions, or how to make sense of those mathematical formulae. Both formulae are actually relevant in my case; just that I could not understand why the two authors came up with an 'opposite' relations in their formulation. Unfortunately, both of them don't provide sufficient explanation as to why they used that formula. I was hoping that mathematician could help me to provide the best possible explanation. But I am bit unlucky now. $\endgroup$
    – BeeTiau
    Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 22:58

2 Answers 2

0
$\begingroup$

A modest proposal. Could it be that there is a typo or misunderstanding in the formulation? If $\zeta$ were inside, rather than on, the circle, the first pair of formulae would be correct—-a direct consequence of the Cauchy integral formula. Analogously for the second one if it were outside.

If $\zeta$ is really on the circle, then the integrals would exist in the distributional sense—-just regard the integrand, in the usual way, as a periodic distribution on the line, but there would be no ambiguity about its possible value. I have made no attempt to actually compute it.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, this is it. If I may ask you a follow-up question. Why does $\zeta$ must be inside, i.e. $\zeta < 1$ for the first formulae to be correct? I really want to know the answer of this--Or, $\zeta > 1$ for the second formulae to be correct. $\endgroup$
    – BeeTiau
    Commented Sep 8, 2019 at 10:20
  • $\begingroup$ You mean $|\zeta|$.This is simply the fact that a contour integral of an analytic function around the unit circle, say, is zero if the function is analytic in its interior. So the formulae will be different, depending on the position of $\zeta$ since the singularity of the integrand, i.e., the zero of the denominator, takes place at this point. I suggest you read an elementary introduction to complex variables, concentrating on the Cauchy integral formula. $\endgroup$
    – user131781
    Commented Sep 8, 2019 at 11:00
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thanks you! I really appreciate your suggestion and effort. Many people have now commented that this kind of question is not appropriate to be asked in here. I don't know why. While your response seems to be what I am looking for; a kind of direction from a math expert to someone who's completely clueless. I appreciate your effort! thanks! $\endgroup$
    – BeeTiau
    Commented Sep 8, 2019 at 11:02
  • $\begingroup$ Very glad to have been of help—-best of luck for the future. $\endgroup$
    – user131781
    Commented Sep 8, 2019 at 11:17
4
$\begingroup$

Strictly speaking both formulas make no sense since all integrals are divergent because the integrands have a pole on the unit circle, namely at $\zeta$.

There are several different ways to make them meaningful: for example to bypass the singularity by a small arc inside the circle or outside the circle, or understand them as principal values, etc.) And I suppose that your books use the different sense of understanding these integrals.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for replying my question. When you say that the books might perhaps use a "different" sense, is it something to do with the integration of the "internal region" or "external region" around the boundary $c$? $\endgroup$
    – BeeTiau
    Commented Sep 7, 2019 at 23:20
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. If you integrate on the circle $|t|=r$ instead, and then take a limit when $r\to1-,$ you obtain one answer and if you take the limit when $r\to1+,$ you obtain the other answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 8, 2019 at 13:17

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .