I would like to describe the smooth global diffeomorphisms $\kappa:\mathbb R^n\rightarrow\mathbb R^n$ such that for all $x\in \mathbb R^n$, $$ \kappa'(x)\in O(n), \quad \text{i.e.}\quad ^t\!\kappa'(x)\kappa'(x)=I_n. $$ In particular, I would be interested in the existence of non-linear $\kappa$.
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$\begingroup$ In view of the very simple (negative as far as existence of nonlinear examples) answers, this does not look like the proper formulation of the question has been reached. What are you after, intuitively? $\endgroup$– Abdelmalek AbdesselamCommented Jun 19, 2019 at 15:08
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2$\begingroup$ @ Abdelmalek Abdesslam If $v(x,t)$ is a (vector-field) solution of the incompressible Navier-Stokes equation in $\mathbb R^3$, $\mathbb R\ni\lambda\not=0$ and $\kappa$ is as in my question then $\lambda \kappa'(x)^{-1}v(\lambda \kappa (x), \lambda ^2 t)$ should also be a solution. My motivation was to check that some non-linear transformations could have been missed. It is of course a bit disappointing that the invariance of NSI group looks so small. By the way, I would be interested to know if (and where) a thorough study of that invariance is performed. $\endgroup$– BazinCommented Jun 19, 2019 at 15:20
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2$\begingroup$ I see. May I interest you in Euler's equation instead...:) $\endgroup$– Abdelmalek AbdesselamCommented Jun 19, 2019 at 15:33
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$\begingroup$ @ Abdelmalek Well, is the invariance group of Euler equation that large? In fact, as far as invariance is concerned, for Euler as well as for NS, you need to give a geometrical meaning to the term $(v\cdot \nabla) v$ by using the Lie derivative along $v$ and also some identification of the cotangent bundle with the tangent bundle, conveniently provided by a Riemannian structure. Of course there are other structures which could provide the identification ; anyhow Euler as well as NS are equation on one-forms. $\endgroup$– BazinCommented Jun 19, 2019 at 20:10
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$\begingroup$ Maybe Euler does not have the kind of symmetries you are hoping for, but it has a purely group theoretical formulation due to Arnold, as reviewed in projecteuclid.org/euclid.bams/1183530815 so in a way symmetries are present. $\endgroup$– Abdelmalek AbdesselamCommented Jun 20, 2019 at 13:40
3 Answers
Since $\|D\kappa(x) \|\le1$ and $\|D\kappa^{-1}(x) \|\le1$, both $\kappa$ and $\kappa^{-1}$ are $1$-Lipschitz, hence isometries.
By (a particular case of) the Mazur-Ulam theorem, any isometry on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is affine, so $\kappa(x)=v+Ux$ with $U\in O(n)$, $v\in\mathbb{R}^n$.
$\kappa$ must be an affine isometry. If $\gamma:[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}^n$ is a smooth curve and $L(\gamma)$ denotes its length, then $$ L(\kappa\circ\gamma)=\int_0^1|D(\kappa\circ\gamma)(t)|\, dt= \int_0^1|D\kappa(\gamma(t))\gamma'(t)|\, dt=\int_0^1|\gamma'(t)|\, dt=L(\gamma). $$ This is because $D\kappa\in O(n)$ and hence this linear map preserves lengths of vectors. The above calculation shows that $\kappa$ preserves lengths of curves from which it easily follows that it preserves distances and hence it is an isometry of $\mathbb{R}^n$. To see that $\kappa$ preserves distamces we argue as follows: If $\gamma$ is a parametrization of a segment connecting $x$ to $y$, then $\kappa\circ\gamma$ connects $\kappa(x)$ to $\kappa(y)$ and hence its length is at least $|\kappa(x)-\kappa(y)|$ $$ |\kappa(x)-\kappa(y)|\leq L(\kappa\circ\gamma)=L(\gamma)=|x-y|. $$ Applying the same argument to the inverse diffeomorphism $\kappa^{-1}$ we have $$ |x-y|=|\kappa^{-1}(\kappa(x))-\kappa^{-1}(\kappa(y))|\leq |\kappa(x)-\kappa(y)| $$ and the above two inequalities show that $|x-y|=|\kappa(x)-\kappa(y)|$.
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2$\begingroup$ A length preserving map is not necessarily distance preserving, only distance decreasing. $\endgroup$– FMBCommented Jun 19, 2019 at 13:29
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2$\begingroup$ @FlorentinMB $\kappa$ is assumed to be differentiable, so it is a distance preserving. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 19, 2019 at 14:34
Even if one relaxes the condition to $D\kappa(x)$ being proportional to an element of $O(n)$, there are no nonlinear examples. These are conformal maps but the global condition maps $\infty$ to $\infty$ so one is back to similary transformations.