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Basically, my question as in the title. Here the Galois representation I consider is an $\ell$-adic Galois representation (comes from geometry). And by the word "self-dual" I mean that representation is isomorphic to its dual representation (transpose inverse in language of matrix) up to a Tate twist.

If the answer is positive, please let me know the idea or reference. If the answer is negative, I am wondering if there is any extra condition(s) to make my statement to be true?

Thanks

Edit: Thanks for the comments from @David Loeffler and @David E Speyer, I think the "correct" statement should be: Is any essentially self-dual 3 dimensional $\ell$-adic Galois representation isomorphic (up to a quadratic character) to a symmetric square of a 2-dimensional Galois representation?

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2 Answers 2

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The correct statement is: any 3-dimensional selfdual Galois representation is isomorphic to a quadratic twist of the adjoint of some 2-dimensional representation. (The quadratic twist is really necessary, as one can see from a variant of David Speyer's example.)

If $\rho: G_F \to GL_3(\overline{\mathbf{Q}}_\ell)$ is a Galois representation, where $F$ is a number field, and $\rho \cong \rho^*$, then the image of $\rho$ has to be contained in the subgroup $O_3(\overline{\mathbf{Q}}_\ell)$ of matrices preserving an orthogonal form. The quotient $O_3 / SO_3$ has order 2, so there is some quadratic character $\nu$ such that $\rho \otimes \nu$ takes values in $SO_3$.

There is an exceptional isomorphism $Ad: PGL_2 \cong SO_3$, so $\rho$ must be $Ad(\tau)$ for some 2-dimensional projective representation $\bar\tau$. You want to know if $\bar\tau$ lifts to an actual representation; the obstruction to this lies in some $H^2$, and by a theorem of Tate this vanishes, so $\bar\tau$ is the image in $PGL_2$ of some $\tau: G_F \to GL_2(\overline{\mathbf{Q}}_\ell)$.

(Note that $\tau$ is non-unique, and it is far from obvious a priori that $\tau$ can be chosen to be geometric if $\rho$ is. This kind of lifting-with-local-conditions question has been studied in detail in Patrikis' thesis.)

This statement has an analogue on the automorphic side: Theorem A of Ramakrishnan's paper "An exercise concerning the selfdual cusp forms on GL(3)" states:

Let F be a number field, and $\Pi$ a cuspidal, selfdual automorphic representation of $GL_3(\mathbb{A}_F)$. Then there exists a non-dihedral cuspidal automorphic representation $\pi$ of $GL_2/F$, and an idele class character $\nu$ of F with $\nu^2 = 1$, such that $\Pi \cong Ad(\pi) \otimes \nu$.


EDIT. I just realised I had missed something: you are taking a (slightly unusual) definition of "selfdual". You aren't requiring that $\rho^* = \rho$ but just that $\rho^* = \rho \otimes \kappa^n$ for some $n$ (where $\kappa$ is the cyclotomic character), so $\rho$ is "selfdual up to Tate twists".

However if you make the even more general assumption that $\rho^* = \rho \otimes \chi$ for any character $\chi$ (this is what people call "essentially selfdual"), then comparing determinants we have $\chi^3 \det(\rho)^2 = 1$, and hence $\chi$ is a square in the group of characters of $G_F$. So we can twist $\rho$ to make it self-dual on the nose, and apply the previous argument to that; and the conclusion is still that $\rho$ is a twist of the adjoint of something (or, if you prefer, a twist of the symmetric square of something).


EDIT 2. (Let's not keep doing this, if you want to change the question then open a new question.) You now ask if any essentially selfdual 3-d representation is a quadratic twist of a symmetric square.

This is not clear to me. What is clear from the above arguments is the following: if $A_\ell$ is the abelian group of characters $G_F \to \overline{\mathbf{Q}}_\ell^\times$, and $\Sigma$ is any set of representatives for the quotient $A_\ell / 2 \cdot A_\ell$, then any ess. selfdual $\rho$ can be written as $\operatorname{Sym}^2(\tau) \otimes \chi$ for some 2-dimensional $\tau$ and some (unique) $\chi \in \Sigma$.

So your new question reduces to a purely one-dimensional one: is every class in $A_\ell / 2A_\ell$ represented by a quadratic character? But I don't see any reason why this should be true in general: I don't see why $A_\ell[2]$ should surject onto $A_\ell / 2A_\ell$.

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    $\begingroup$ A point which confused me: Even once you get $\rho$ to land in $SO_3$, and lift $\overline{\tau}$ to $\tau$, it may not be true that $\rho \cong \mathrm{Sym}^2(\tau)$; rather, they can differ by a quadratic twist. This happens in my example: $\mathrm{diag}(-1,1,-1)$ lies in $SO_3$, and is $\mathrm{Sym}^2(\mathrm{diag}(i,-i))$. The PGL rep $\mathrm{diag}(i,-i)$ lifts to $\mathrm{diag}(1,-1)$. But $\mathrm{Sym}^2(\mathrm{diag}(1,-1)) = \mathrm{diag}(1,-1,1) = (-1) \otimes \mathrm{diag}(1,-1,1)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 2, 2018 at 12:19
  • $\begingroup$ @DavidESpeyer $Ad \ne Sym^2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 2, 2018 at 15:11
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    $\begingroup$ Less telegraphically: what the construction produces is a (trivial or quadratic) character $\nu$ and a 2-dimensional rep $\tau$ such that $\rho \otimes \nu = \operatorname{Ad}(\tau)$, where $\operatorname{Ad}(\tau) \cong \operatorname{Sym}^2\tau \otimes (\det \tau)^{-1}$ is the 3-dimensional subrepresentation of $\tau \otimes \tau^\vee$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 2, 2018 at 15:14
  • $\begingroup$ Fair enough, thanks! The original question asked about $\mathrm{Sym}^2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 2, 2018 at 23:09
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @DavidLoeffler for giving a fantastic explanation! I think that solve my question. $\endgroup$
    – Leo D
    Commented Oct 3, 2018 at 19:21
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I'm not sure how to define "comes from geometry" precisely, but how about the following counterexample: Let $K$ be a quadratic imaginary extension of $\mathbb{Q}$. Let $V$ be the three dimensional representation where the nontrivial element of $\mathrm{Gal}(K/\mathbb{Q})$ acts by $\mathrm{diag}(-1,1,-1)$. We claim that $V$ cannot be $\mathrm{Sym}(W)$ for a two dimensional Galois representation $W$.

Let $\sigma$ denote complex conjugation in $\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}/\mathbb{Q})$. Then $\sigma$ acts on $V$ with eigenvalues $(-1,1,-1)$, so it would have to act on $W$ with eigenvalues $\pm i$. But $\sigma$ has order $2$ in $\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}/\mathbb{Q})$, so it cannot act with eigenvalues other than $\pm 1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @David E Speyer, I am sorry for not stating this question clearly since I didn't know what the "correct statement" should be. I think I do need to add the condition "up to a quadratic character". $\endgroup$
    – Leo D
    Commented Oct 3, 2018 at 19:28

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