Here is a counterexample to what I think is being asked.
In this counterexample, $P$, $Q$, and $P - Q$ are all symmetric positive definite, $F^TP+PF$ is negative definite, and $F^TQ+QF$ is indefinite, as seen below.
>> disp(P)
30 15
15 50
>> disp(Q)
3 -2
-2 7
>> disp(F)
-2 -1
1 0
>> disp(eig(P))
21.9722
58.0278
>> disp(eig(Q))
2.1716
7.8284
>> disp(eig(P-Q))
16.2117
53.7883
>> disp(eig(F'*P+P'*F))
-91.6228
-28.3772
>> disp(eig(F'*Q+Q'*F))
-18.8062
6.8062
Edit: Here is a counterexample to the proposed implication in the comment to this answer by the OP, i.e., with $Q - P$ being positive definite.
>> disp(P)
3.0384 0.3833
0.3833 2.0377
>> disp(Q)
11.7204 3.8318
3.8318 4.8094
>> disp(F)
-0.6509 -0.9444
0.2571 -1.3218
>> disp(eig(P))
1.9078
3.1683
>> disp(eig(Q))
3.1051
13.4247
>> disp(eig(Q-P))
1.1854
10.2684
>> disp(eig(F'*P+P'*F))
-8.2518
-1.6173
>> disp(eig(F'*Q+Q'*F))
-34.3271
1.0879