I have been reading the paper "Good Reduction of Abelian Varieties" of Serre-Tate and in particular the part where they show that the Tate module being unramified implies good reduction.
As in the paper, let $\mathcal O_v$ be a DVR (discrete valuation ring), $K_v$ it's field of fractions, $k_v$ it's residue field and $A/K_v$ an abelian variety. Also, let $A_v$ be the Neron model of $A$ over $\mathcal O_v$.
In the first part of the proof, they show that the reduction of $A_v$ (= $A_v\times_{\mathcal O_v}k_v$) is proper over $k_v$ and need to show that $A_v$ itself is proper over $\mathcal O_v$. They do it by reducing to the complete case and then applying some results from EGA (that I don't understand very well).
I wanted to try proving it myself using the valuative criterion for properness. To this end, let $R$ be a DVR over $\mathcal O_v$ with fraction field $K$ and suppose we are given maps $\operatorname{Spec} K \to A_v$ and $\operatorname{Spec} R \to \operatorname{Spec} \mathcal O_v$ that form a commuting diagram. We need to show that there is exactly one lift from $\operatorname{Spec} R \to A_v$ that fills in the diagram.
The proposed proof now splits into three cases. Either, $\operatorname{Spec} R \to \operatorname{Spec} \mathcal O_v$ factors through the generic point of $\operatorname{Spec}\mathcal O_v$ or through the closed point or neither happens (that is, the map is surjective).
In the first case, we can replace $A_v$ by $A/K_v$ and since this is proper, we are done. In the second case, we can replace $A_v$ by $A_v\otimes_{\mathcal O_v}k_v$ and this has also been shown to be proper and we are done.
In the final case, I would like to argue as follows: Since $A_v$ is the Neron model, $A_v(\operatorname{Spec} R) = A(\operatorname{Spec} K)$ and so there is a unique lift. Unfortunately, this argument will only work if $\operatorname{Spec} R$ is smooth over $\operatorname{Spec} O_v$ but of course this is not always true.
Is there a way to fix this argument? I can see one way to fix it if the following were true:
If $X/\mathcal O_v$ is a smooth, separated scheme, is it true that $X/\mathcal O_v$ is proper if and only if the valuative criterion is satisfied for all smooth DVRS $R/\mathcal O_v$? Or even for all smooth DVR's and all DVR's that do not map surjectively onto $\mathcal O_v$?
Is this true?