4
$\begingroup$

I am trying to understand the proof of the following result:

Suppose $F$ is a function field in $k$ variables over an algebraically closed field. Let $f_1,...,f_r \in F[x_1,...,x_n]$ be polynomials without constant term of degrees $d_1,...,d_r$, respectively. Assume that $n>d_1^k+...+d_r^k$. Then $f_1,...,f_r$ have a non-trivial common zero. If $F$ is instead a function field in $k$ variables over a finite field, then these polynomials have a non-trivial common zero provided that $n>d_1^{k+1}+...+d_r^{k+1}$.

This is the Corollary on page 378 from the paper of Lang 1952. The claim of the author is that this is a corollary of the Theorem 6 (that appears on the same page). However, to me, all that Theorem 6 seems to say is that $F$ is a $C_k$ field (for a definition see the same paper page 374) and I do not see this to be enough to obtain our conclusion. Theorem 4 of this paper (page 376) does show this statement but only when $f_i$ are homogeneous of degree $d_i$.

For the second part the author claims that this a corollary of the same theorem and of the following statement by Chevalley:

Let $\mathbb F$ be a finite field. Let $f_1,...,f_r \in \mathbb F[x_1,...,x_n]$ be polynomials without constant term of degrees $d_1,...,d_r$, respectively. Assume that $n>d_1+...+d_r$. Then $f_1,...,f_r$ have a non-trivial common zero.

but again I am struggling to put the ends together. I understand that I am supposed to understand this by myself, but I am new to the subject, and I feel a little bit lost.

I also realize that this seems like a double question, so probably it was inappropriate to post it in this way, but I believe that the reasoning for both parts should be very similar.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ There are "normic forms" that allow you to generalize from a single polynomial to an $r$-tuple of polynomials. Alternatively, you can set up the theory allowing tuples of polynomials, but the basic proofs then require more "bookkeeping" (that word has three consecutive double letters :) $\endgroup$ Mar 22, 2017 at 21:38
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Namely, one can apply theorem 4(the existence of normic forms of any degree is explained on p. 377) $\endgroup$
    – SashaP
    Mar 22, 2017 at 21:42

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.