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Let $X$ be a derived stack. There is a $S^1$-action on the derived loop space $\mathcal{L}(X) = \text{Maps}(S^1, X)$. In particular, $\mathcal{O}(\mathcal{L} X)$ should be quasi-isomorphic to a mixed complex.

I want to consider three specific examples, all over a field of characteristic zero. Let $G$ be an affine algebraic group. (1) A warm-up, where $X$ is a classical scheme (let's assume it is smooth and affine to make things easier), (2) $X = BG$, and in particular $X = B\mathbb{G}_a$ and (3) $X = Y/G$ where say, $G$ is a reductive and $Y$ is affine (to make things easier).

(Edit: I made many edits below, after thinking about this some more)

Example 1: A smooth scheme

I want to understand how one obtains the Connes $B$-operator (via HKR?) on functions on the derived loop space of a smooth (say, affine, to make things simpler) scheme $X$ from DAG first principles (rather than say, cyclic sets). To compute the loop space, we can write $S^1$ as the homotopy colimit of the simplicial set corresponding to the presentation of $S^1$ by two simplices (of dimension zero and one). I'll denote this simplicial set by $C$, so that we have $$\mathcal{L}(X) = \text{Map}(S^1, X) \simeq \text{colim}_C \text{Map}(\text{Spec}(k), X) \simeq \lim_{C^{op}} X$$ In particular, if $X$ is affine, one gets the usual Hochschild complex. Edit: In light of the comment below by Marc, it seems likely that some combination of his notes and Loday's book should tell how we obtain Connes' mixed complex.

Example 2: $BG$

We have that $\mathcal{L}(BG) = G/G$, and that $\mathcal{O}(G/G) = k[G]^G$, where the invariants are derived. In particular, $\mathcal{O}(G/G)$ is the rational cohomology of the $G$-representation $k[G]$. If $G$ is reductive, then it has no higher cohomology, so the $S^1$-action on this vector space is necessarily trivial.

Another example: if $B$ is a Borel subgroup of a reductive algebraic group, then $B/B \simeq \tilde{G}/G$. It's known that the higher cohomology of $\tilde{G}$ vanishes, and since $G$ is reductive taking invariants is exact, so again the $S^1$-action is trivial.

In search of a less trivial example, let us take $G = \mathbb{G}_a$; then there is some nontrivial group cohomology: $\mathcal{O}(\mathbb{G}_a/\mathbb{G}_a) \simeq C^\bullet(\mathbb{G}_a k[\mathbb{G}_a]) \simeq k[x, \eta]$, the free dg-commutative ring generated by $|x| = 0$ and $|\eta| = 1$. Here, there is a presentation of $\mathcal{O}(G/G)$ as a cocyclic set (as discussed in Jantzen's book) and the "dual" Connes degree $-1$ operator $B^*$ (I don't know if this is written down anywhere) sends $\eta \mapsto x$.

However, I don't understand why this cocyclic set should have anything to do with the circle action on loops. In particular, it seems somewhat orthogonal to the first example: there, the cyclic structure came from taking a left-derived functor, and here the cocyclic arises from taking a right-derived functor. Question: How does this (co)cyclic structure arise from first DAG principles?

Example 3: $Y/G$

The loop space of $Y/G$ is again a derived scheme stacky-modulo a group action of $G$. We can identify this scheme by the derived fiber product $Y/G \times_{BG} \text{Spec}(k) = Y \times_{Y \times Y} (G \times Y)$. If $Y$ is affine, we can take a bar resolution of $Y$ over $Y \times Y$.

However, the resulting complex after tensoring with the right factor is not a cyclic set in any obvious way to me. For example, taking $Y = \mathbb{A}^1$ and $G = \mathbb{G}_m$, the first differential in the resulting complex is a map $k[x] \otimes k[x] \otimes k[z^{\pm 1}] \rightarrow k[x] \otimes k[z^{\pm 1}]$, sending (assume $f, g$ homogeneous) $$f \otimes g \otimes 1 \mapsto fg \otimes (1 - z^{|g|})$$ which does not intertwine with any rotation homomorphism I can think to define (even "twisted" ones). Question: what is the $S^1$ action on this (sort of) derived loop space?

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    $\begingroup$ I wrote a note proving that Connes' mixed complex (with the $B$-operator) is quasi-isomorphic to the mixed complex induced by the $S^1$-action (Theorem 2.4). That may answer parts of your first question, though it's a general fact about cyclic modules which has nothing to do with DAG. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 30, 2016 at 1:48
  • $\begingroup$ I found an answer to the first two questions in a paper "Cyclic homology and equivariant homology" by John D.S. Jones -- when taking the loop space of a scheme $X$, we formally get a cocyclic set on functor of points which have a (less-known) geometric realization functor. For $BG$ it's the usual cyclic set on functor of points as described for in Loday's book. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2016 at 6:18

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