This is basically a restatement of this question.
Two arrows $f,g$ are orthogonal, i.e satisfy $f\perp g$, iff the square below is a pullback
$$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} \mathsf C(B,X) @>{f^\ast}>> \mathsf C(A,X)\\ @V{g_\ast}VV @VV{g_\ast}V\\ \mathsf C(B,Y) @>>{f^\ast}> \mathsf C(A,Y). \end{CD}$$
Suppose now $\mathsf C$ is closed and we replace the hom-sets by internal homs. $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} [B,X] @>{[f,-]}>> [A,X]\\ @V{[-,g]}VV @VV{[-,g]}V\\ [B,Y] @>>{[f,-]}> [A,Y]. \end{CD}$$ Is this square still a pullback iff $f\perp g$? What if $\mathsf C$ is a topos (not well-pointed in general)?
I ask because definition 8.10 of these SDG notes by Kostecki seemingly define formal étaleness by using such an internal analogue of orthogonality.
Also, in the case $\mathsf C$ is a topos, can anything be said about the merely existence or uniqueness (without existence) of diagonal fillers in terms of the induced map $[B,X]\to [A,X]\times _{[A,Y]}[B,Y]$ being respectively epic or monic? This would shed light on formal unramifiedness/smoothness for me.
Added. A similar definition of orthogonality (unique lifting) is 5.1 here.