I'm trying to understand the proof of Theorem II.1.7 in Kollar's Rational curves on algebraic varieties. In particular, there is a claim in there that I can't make sense of.
The setting is the following (we slightly simplify the statement). Let $C/S$ be a flat projective curve without embedded points and $Y/S$ a smooth scheme over $S$. Suppose that $B/S\subset C/S$ is the image of a flat section $p$, and that $C/S$ is smooth along $B$. We are given a morphism $g:B/S\to Y/S$. Let $s$ be a point in $S$, and $f_s:C_s\to Y_s$ a morphism respecting $G_s$.
The thesis is that the Zariski tangent space to $\mbox{Hom}(C_s,Y_s,G_s)$ at $[f_s]$ is isomorphic to $$ H^0(C_s,f_s^*T_{Y_s}\otimes I_{B_s}) $$ where $I_{B_s}=\mathcal{O}_{C_s}(-p(s))$ is the ideal sheaf of $B$ at the fiber above $s$.
By a previous result of the book (Thm. I.2.15 and following), we can prove this by showing that $\mbox{Hom}(C,Y,G)$ is isomorphic to an open set of a certain Hilbert scheme, constructed as follows.
Let $X=C\times_S Y$ and $\gamma:C_s\simeq\Gamma\subset X$, where $\Gamma$ is the graph of $f_s$. Let $I$ be the ideal sheaf of $\Gamma$ in $\mathcal{O}_X$. By construction (we have a splitting of the conormal bundle sequence since we are in a product) we get
$$ \gamma^*(I/I^2)\simeq f_s^*\Omega_{Y_s}. $$ Now let $X'$ be the blowup of $X$ along $p(S)$ (how does this live in $X$?), and $\Gamma'$ be the strict transform of $\Gamma$, still isomorphic to $C_s$ via $\gamma'$. Let $I'$ be its ideal sheaf in $\mathcal{O}_{X'}$. He claims that
$$ \gamma'^*(I'/I^{'2})\simeq \gamma(I/I^2)\otimes \mathcal{O}_{C_s}(-p(s))\simeq f_s^*\Omega_{Y_s}\otimes I_{B_s} $$
and this first isomorphism is the one I can't motivate.
The correct Hilbert scheme is then $\mbox{Hilb}(X'/S)$. Another thing I don't understand is that to get the $H^0$ in the thesis I would have to dualize $f_s^*\Omega_{Y_s}\otimes I_{B_s}$, so shouldn't I expect to have a $I_{B_s}^*$ there?