I am reading "An Invitation to Quantum Groups and Duality From Hopf Algebras to Multiplicative Unitaries and Beyond" by Thomas Timmermann. In the proposition 5.2.8 (page 117) the author provide a proof of the following fact:
Let $(A, \Delta)$ be a C$^*$-algebraic compact quantum group with Haar state $h$, and let $X$ be a unitary corepresentation operator of $(A, \Delta)$ on a Hilbert space $H$. Then
$$ C_X = \overline{span}\{[id \otimes h](X(id_{H} \otimes a)) : a \in A\}$$ is a C$^*$-algebra.
In the proof the author first shows that $[C_X^* C_X] = C_X$ and claims that this implies $C_X$ is a C$^*$-algebra.
In general if $A$ is a Banach subalgebra of $B(H)$, $A^*A = A$ does not implies that $A$ is a C$^*$-algebra, e.g. let
$$ A = \{ \begin{pmatrix} 0 & x\\ 0 & y\\ \end{pmatrix} \}.$$
I think I must miss something. Would anyone let me know why $[C_X^* C_X] = C_X$ implies $C_X$ is a C$^*$-algebra here. Thank you!