Let $p_n$ be the $n$th prime, let $L$ consist of the primes satisfying $p_{n+2} - 2p_{n+1} + p_{n} > 0$, and let $Q$ consist of the primes satisfying $p_{n+1}^2 < p_{n}p_{n+2}.$ Is $L=Q$?
Background: The arithmetic-geometric mean inequality implies $Q \subset L$, but the reverse containment, if true, may be harder to prove.
The inequalities have been verified equivalent by computer for the first $4,000,000$ primes (i.e., up to $67,867,967$). The number of these primes for which the inequalities hold is $1,941,180$, which is more than $48.5$ percent of the total. Further experimentation leads me to guess that a limiting ratio exists.
It's been checked that for $1<n<4,000,000$, when the two inequalities hold we also have $$p_{n+1}^2 - p_{n}p_{n+2} > p_{n+2} - 2p_{n+1} + p_{n}.$$