In the paper "Sato-Tate Distributions and Galois Endomorphism Modules in Genus 2" (arxiv: http://arxiv.org/abs/1110.6638), the authors use the singular homology $H_1(A_\mathbb{C}^{top},\mathbb{Q})$ ($A$ is an abelian variety). I have seen this construction other places, but most recently here. I am not that well versed in homolgy but I looked up what the singular homology is and I think I understand it. However I don't see what it represents in the abelian variety case.
In the paper they state that if $V_\ell(A)$ is the rational Tate-module then
$$V_\ell(A) \cong H_1(A_\mathbb{C}^{top},\mathbb{Q}) \otimes \mathbb{Q}_\ell$$
I have studied a bit on abelian varieties over finite fields and in that case we get
$$V_\ell(A) \cong T_\ell(A) \otimes \mathbb{Q}_\ell$$
where $T_\ell(A)$ is the (non-rational) Tate-module. From there we get that
$$A(\mathbb{F}_q)_\ell \cong T_\ell(A) / (1-F)T_\ell(A)$$
where $F$ is the Frobenius. Morever $V_\ell(A) \cong V_\ell(B)$ if and only if $A \sim B$. That is, the relationship between $T_\ell(A)$ and $V_\ell(A)$ gives a way to look at the group that can appear inside a isogeny classes.
Is the relationship between $V_\ell(A)$ and $H_1(A_\mathbb{C}^{top},\mathbb{Q})$ similar for abelian varieties not over finite fields as the relationship between $V_\ell(A)$ and $T_\ell(A)$? Obviously it won't be exactly the same as we do not have a Frobenius endomorphism. If not, what is the relevance of $H_1(A_\mathbb{C}^{top},\mathbb{Q})$ and what can we interpret it as?