Let me first recall some definition: Let $A$ be a Grothendieck Abelian category. Then, then category $\mathrm{Ch}(A)$ (I am using homological indexing) admits a combinatorial model structure (see for eg. Lurie's Higher Algebra, 1.3.5.3), where:
- Cofibrations: level-wise injective chain maps.
- Weak equivalence: quasi-isomorphisms.
- Fibration: maps with right lifting property with respect to trivial (i.e. acyclic) cofibrations.
Using this model structure, we could form an unbounded ($\infty$-)derived category $D(A)$ (which is a stable $\infty$-category), whose objects are fibrant objects of $\mathrm{Ch}(A)$ (note that all objects in $\mathrm{Ch}(A)$ are automatically cofibrant). This category is also equipped with a $t$-structure defined by the vanishing of the homology groups (see loc. cit. 1.3.5.16).
In loc. cit., 1.3.5.21, it is proved that $D(A)$ with the $t$-structure mentioned above is right complete, using (the dual version of) 1.2.1.19. But in remark 1.3.5.22, it is mentioned that the stable $\infty$-category $D(A)$ is generally not left-complete.
My question is: why can't we use 1.2.1.19 to prove also that $D(A)$ is left-complete? It seems to me that the category admits countable product, and $D(A)_{\geq 0}$ is stable under this operation, since $A$ is a Grothendieck abelian category. Moreover, $D(A)_{\geq \infty} = D(A)_{\leq \infty}$ since both just consist of those fibrant complexes that are acyclic. But $D(A)_{\leq\infty} = 0$, at least because of the claim that $D(A)$ is right-complete.
I would appreciate it very much if someone could point out where my confusion lies!