In my research I have come up with the following notion which I would like to learn more about. It may be very naive.
Let $R$ be a ring, $M$ an $R$-module and $S$ a class or $R$-modules closed under coproducts. We say that $M$ is projective relative to $S$ if every surjection from an element of $S$ to a coproduct of copies of $M$ admits a section. We say that $M$ is strongly projective relative to $S$ if every such surjection splits with summands in $S$. (The generality in this definition is just to make the exposition clearer, I have a fairly specific example in mind, see below.)
The easiest example is if we let $I$ be an ideal in $R$ and $M=R/I$. Then we may take $S$ to be the class of modules with annihilator containing $I$ (I.e. the $R/I$-modules) and $M$ is strongly projective relative to $S$. If $R/I$ is local then we can take $S$ to be coproducts of $M$ and $M$ is strongly projective relative to $S$ (by kaplansky's theorem).
The example I have in mind is where $G$ is a finite $p$-group, $H$ is a normal subgroup, $k$ a field of characteristic $p$, $R= kG$ is the group algebra (which is local) and $M=kG/H$. Then $M$ is strongly projective to the same $S$ as before (I.e. the coproducts of $M$).
But what if $H$ is not normal? Is $M$ still strongly projective relative to $S$? If not what goes wrong?
Note that I have no particular reason to believe that this should be true, other than that I could not find a counterexample (likely because of my lack of group theory fu) and that it would be helpful for something I want to prove.