0
$\begingroup$

Consider the following subsets of $\mathbb{C}^n$ given by $$ X := \{x \in \mathbb{C}^n: f(x) =0, ~~g(x) \neq 0 \} $$ $$ Y := \{ x \in \mathbb{C}^n: f(x) =0, ~~g(x) =0, ~~h(x) \neq 0 \} $$

where $f, g$ and $h$ are holomorphic functions. Let us also assume that $Y$ is non empty. In particular this would avoid something like $h(x)$ being a ``factor'' of $g(x)$.
Then is it always true that

$$ \bar{X} \subset X \cup \bar{Y} $$

where $\bar{X}$ and $\bar{Y}$ denote the respective closures taken inside $\mathbb{C}^n$?

If this is not true, then is there any reasonable condition on $f$, $g$ and $h$ to ensure that this is true?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

This is not true. Take $n=2$, $f(x,y)=x$, $ g(x,y)=y(y-1),\; h(x,y)=x-y$.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .