10
$\begingroup$

Let $D$ be a skew field and $F$ and $E$ be isomorphic finite subfields of $D$, is it true that $F=E$?

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Note that if $D$ is finite or is commutative the claim is true. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 17:09
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The skew field of quaternions contains uncountably many subfields isomorphic to the complexes. The space of such subfields is naturally homeomorphic to the real projective plane P^2. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 21:06

2 Answers 2

8
$\begingroup$

No, this is not true. Suppose that $D$ is a skew field containing a finite field $F$ and $F$ is not contained in the center of $D$. Take $d \in D$ which does not commute with $F$. If $dFd^{-1}$ is distinct from $F$, then it is a subfield of $D$ isomorphic to $F$, and we're done. Otherwise, we have that $dFd^{-1} = F$, which means that conjugation by $d$ acts as a non-trivial automorphism of $F$.

Let $f \in F$ be a generator of the multiplicative group and then $dfd^{-1} = f^n$, where $f^n \neq f$. Now consider $(1+d)F(1+d)^{-1}$, which will also be a subfield of $D$. Assume for contradiction that $(1+d)F(1+d)^{-1} = F$. Then, that means $(1+d)f(1+d)^{-1} = f^m$ for some $m$. Rearranging, we get: $$f^m + f^m d = f + df = f + f^nd$$ and so: $$f-f^m = (f^m-f^n)d$$ If $f^n \neq f^m$, then $d$ is an element of $F$, which is a contradiction. On the other hand, if $f^n = f^m$, then $f = f^m$, and so $f = f^n$, which is also a contradiction. So we conclude that $(1+d)F(1+d)^{-1}$ is a subfield of $D$ isomorphic to $F$ but not equal to it.

It only remains to show that there actually is division ring $D$ with a finite subfield not contained in the center. The example I know of is to take the skew polynomial ring $\mathbb F_{p^k}[x; F]$ where $k \geq 2$ and $x$ acts by Frobenius, meaning that $x f = f^p x$ for $f \in \mathbb F_{p^k}$. Then, $\mathbb F_{p^k}[x; F]$ satisfies the Ore condition, so that it can be extended to a division ring. This gives example for $F$ isomorphic to any finite field other than a prime field, which is always unique.

Now you could ask whether any two finite subfields of a division ring which are isomorphic are always conjugate, and that I don't know.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ I was wondering about this last question—it would be something like a Witt's theorem-flavoured generalisation of Skolem–Noether: can the isomorphism of $F$ with $E$, viewed as a non-inclusion embedding of $F$ in $D$, be extended to an automorphism of $D$? $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Feb 16 at 20:27
  • $\begingroup$ Note that by Cartan-Brauer-Hua Theorem if $F$ is normal in $D$, then $F$ is contained in the center of $D$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 16 at 21:08
  • $\begingroup$ @AlborzAzarang, re, isn't that just what this answer is saying? $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Feb 16 at 21:21
4
$\begingroup$

The following answer is nearly identical to @DustinCartwright's, which I saw after posting had been posted a few minutes earlier. I only construct a specific division algebra with a non-central finite subfield differently.

No. Let $\theta$ be a non-square in $\mathbb F_3$, put $k = \mathbb F_3(X)$ (i.e., rational functions in one variable over $\mathbb F_3$), and consider the quaternion algebra $D \mathrel{:=} (\theta, X)_k$ (in the usual notation), so that there are elements $i, j \in D$ with $i^2 = \theta$, $j^2 = X$, and $i j = -j i$. Then $D$ is a division algebra because the quadratic form $(a, b, c, d) \mapsto a^2 - b^2\theta - c^2 X - d^2\theta X$ on $k^4$ does not non-trivially represent $0$.

We have that $D$ contains a finite field $F \mathrel{:=} \mathbb F_3(i)$ with 9 elements. One computes directly that the centralizer $C_D(F)$ equals $k[i] = F(X)$. Since $N_{D^\times}(F)$ contains $j \notin C_{D^\times}(F)$, and since $N_{D^\times}(F)/C_{D^\times}(F)$ injects into the order-$2$ group $\operatorname{Gal}(F/\mathbb F_3)$, we have that $N_{D^\times}(F)$ equals $\langle j\rangle\cdot k[i]^\times$, which is a proper subgroup of $D^\times$. For any element $g$ of $D^\times \setminus \langle j\rangle\cdot k[i]^\times$, we have that $E \mathrel{:=} g F g^{-1}$ is a subfield of $D$ that is isomorphic, but not equal, to $F$.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ You might say explicitly that you provide a quaternion algebra over $k=\mathbf{F}_3(X)$ — how do you see that it's not split? By the way, the only non-square in $\mathbf{F}_3$ is $-1$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Feb 16 at 21:32
  • $\begingroup$ @YCor, re, non-splitness comes from the fact that $(a, b, c, d) \mapsto a^2 - \theta b^2 - X c^2 - \theta X d^2$ does not non-trivially represent $0$ on $\mathbb F_3(X)$, as can be seen by clearing denominators, looking at leading coefficients, and remembering that $(a, b) \mapsto a^2 - \theta b^2$ does not non-trivially represent $0$ on $\mathbb F_3$. Other than that, I'm not sure what you mean that I should say explicitly—what should I change or add? $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Feb 16 at 21:48
  • $\begingroup$ $(\theta,X)_k$ is by definition a quaternion algebra (and not "by definition" a division algebra), so once defined, it is worth saying that it is indeed a division algebra (with the argument of your previous comment). $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Feb 16 at 21:51
  • $\begingroup$ @YCor, re, ah, I see. I appreciate the suggestion. I have edited accordingly. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Feb 16 at 22:18

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .