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Let $(\mathcal C, \otimes, I)$ be a symmetric monoidal 2-category, and let $X \in \mathcal C$ be a dualizable object, with dual $X^\vee$, unit $coev: I \to X \otimes X^\vee$, and counit $ev : X^\vee \otimes X \to I$ satisfying the triangle identities. Recall that $X$ is 2-dualizable if the unit and counit each fit into doubly-infinite adjoint strings:

$$(1a) \qquad \cdots \dashv ev^{LL} \dashv ev^L \dashv ev \dashv ev^R \dashv ev^{RR} \dashv \cdots$$

$$(1b) \qquad \cdots \dashv coev^{LL} \dashv coev^L \dashv coev \dashv coev^R \dashv coev^{RR} \dashv \cdots$$

Lurie shows (Prop 4.2.3) that to check this, it suffices to check that we have the following two adjunctions:

$$(2) \qquad ev^L \dashv ev \dashv ev^R$$

But I don't fully follow the proof. I also seem to recall seeing somewhere that it alternatively suffices to check the following two adjunctions

$$(3a) \qquad ev \dashv ev^R$$

$$(3b) \qquad coev \dashv coev^R$$

Example: Criterion (3) implies that any dualizable object in the $(\infty,2)$-category of presentable stable compactly-generated categories is 2-dualizable as an object in the $(\infty,2)$-category of presentable stable categories.

Question 1:. To check $(1)$, why does it suffice to check $(2)$?

Question 2: Are $(2)$ and $(3)$ equivalent?

Question 3: Is the Example discussed anywhere?

Regarding Question 1, Lurie explains in 4.2.3 and the immediately following 4.2.4 that from $ev^R$ we may construct the Serre twist $S : X \to X$ and from $ev^L$ we may construct the inverse Serre twist $T : X \to X$, but I don't see why these morphisms are inverse to one another. Moreover, I don't follow the argument that this leads to an infinite adjoint string. Finally, I don't see how this yields an infinite adjoint string for coevaluation.

Question 4: Are (1a) and (1b) equivalent?

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm also curious about how these infinite adjoint strings related by Serre twists relate to the kind of Wirthmuller isomorphism considerations in Balmer-Dell'Ambrogio-Sanders. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 14:36
  • $\begingroup$ Re: question 3, the fact that $Pr^L_{st,\omega} \subset (Pr^L_{st})^{dbl}$ is discussed among other places in SAG. Taking "dbl" of this inclusion gives exactly your Example. it is also definitely discussed other places, e.g. in Hoyois-Scherotzke-Sibilla, or in Hoyois' note on continuous K-theory (following Efimov) $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 15:23
  • $\begingroup$ @MaximeRamzi What do you mean by "taking 'dbl' of the inclusion"? I think I'm asking about a fact which is complementary to the fact that $Pr^L_{st,\omega} \subseteq (Pr^L_{st})^{dbl}$ -- I'm saying that as soon as you're 1-dualizable in $Pr^L_{st,\omega}$, you're automatically 2-dualizable in $Pr^L_{st}$. In general a morphism in $Pr^L_{st,\omega}$ has a right adjoint in $Pr^L_{st}$, but I'm saying that by (3), we get in fact that as soon as $ev,coev$ are in $Pr^L_{st,\omega}$, that they have these adjoints in $Pr^L_{st}$, it in fact follows that they fit into infinite adjoint strings. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 15:39
  • $\begingroup$ Said differently, the Example seems to say that every 1-dualizable object of $Pr^L_{st,\omega}$ is in fact 2-dualizable (since those infinite adjoint strings in $Pr^L_{st}$ must in fact be infinite adjoint strings in $Pr^L_{st,\omega}$). $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 15:39
  • $\begingroup$ Mhm yeah I guess from this perspective, it is related to the fact that if $A$ is a proper algebra, then the right adjoint to the forgetful functor from $A$-modules is simply $\hom(A,-)\simeq A^\vee$, and this is again dualizable, so this has a further right adjoint etc., and dually in the smooth case. i don't know a reference where it has been spelled out $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 22:37

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I will try to answer questions 1, 2, and 4. Question 3 is somewhat orthogonal to them, and I don't know the answer.

Clearly (1) implies both (2) and (3).

Suppose that (3) holds. Let me write $\sigma$ for the symmetry on $\mathcal{C}$, and consider the map $coev' := \sigma \circ ev^R : I \to X \otimes X^\vee$ and $ev' := coev^R \circ \sigma : X^\vee \otimes X \to I$. The zorro equations for $coev, ev$ imply zorro equations for $coev', ev'$. In other words, $coev'$ and $ev'$ select another 1-duality between $X$ and $X^\vee$.

On the other hand, given $X$, the space of duality data $(X^\vee, coev, ev)$ is contractible [I will only use that it's connected] if it is nonempty. Thus, there is an automorphism of $X^\vee$ which conjugates $coev$ to $coev'$ and $ev$ to $ev'$. Of course, this automorphism is precisely the Serre, but I don't really care what its formula is, only that it exists. (Anyway, you can work out a formula: you just use the only formula that identifies different duals with each other.)

Isomorphisms are in particular adjunctible. In particular, since $coev'$ is $coev$ composed with some isomorphisms, they have the same amount of adjunctibility. But $coev$ is by assumption right-adjunctible, whereas $coev' = \sigma \circ ev^R$ is by construction left-adjunctible. So both $coev$ and $coev'$ are both-sides-adjunctible, and ditto for $ev$ and $ev'$.

Now you repeat the game. For example, $coev'$ and $ev'$ admit right adjoints $(coev')^R$ and $(ev')^R$, from which you can build yet another duality $coev'', ev''$ between $X,X^\vee$, and from it conclude that all the players in the game are twice-right-adjunctible and twice-left-adjunctible. Keep going to conclude that (3) implies (1).


To finish, I need to show that (2) implies (3). More generally, I want to show the following. Suppose I have a dual pair $(X,X^\vee, coev, ev)$, and I know that $ev : X^\vee \otimes X \to I$ admits a left adjoint $ev^L : I \to X^\vee \otimes X$. Then I claim that $coev : I \to X \otimes X^\vee$ admits a right adjoint $coev^R : X \otimes X^\vee \to I$.

There is only one possible guess for the formula for $coev^R$: $$ coev^R := (ev \otimes ev) \circ (\sigma \otimes \sigma) \circ (X^\vee \otimes ev^L \otimes X).$$ [Notation: I am using the same name for an object and for its identity 1-morphism.] The adjunction $ev^L \dashv ev$ consists of 2-morphisms $I \Rightarrow ev \circ ev^L$ and $ev^L \circ ev \Rightarrow X^\vee \otimes X$. I want to supply 2-morphisms $I \Rightarrow coev^R \circ coev$ and $coev \circ coev^R \Rightarrow X \otimes X^\vee$.

But the zorro relation for $ev,coev$ [and some interchanges] provides an isomorphism $$coev^R \circ coev \cong ev \circ ev^L$$ and I already have a 2-morphism $I \Rightarrow ev \circ ev^L$, so just compose it with my zorro-provided isomorphism to get the desired $I \Rightarrow coev^R \circ coev$.

On the other hand, $$ coev \cong (X \otimes ev \otimes X^\vee) \circ (coev \otimes coev),$$ and so $$ coev \circ coev^R \cong [(X \otimes ev \otimes X^\vee) \circ (coev \otimes coev)] \circ [(ev \otimes ev) \circ (\sigma \otimes \sigma) \circ (X^\vee \otimes ev^L \otimes X)].$$ Now apply some interchanges to bring $ev, ev^L$ next to each other: $$ \cong (X \otimes ev\sigma \otimes ev\sigma \otimes X^\vee) \circ (\sigma \otimes ev^Lev \otimes \sigma) \circ (X \otimes coev \otimes coev \otimes X^\vee)$$ But $ev^Lev$ emits a 2-morphism to $X^\vee \otimes X$, so my complicated composition emits a 2-morphism to $$ \Rightarrow (X \otimes ev\sigma \otimes ev\sigma \otimes X^\vee) \circ (\sigma \otimes X^\vee \otimes X \otimes \sigma) \circ (X \otimes coev \otimes coev \otimes X^\vee),$$ which, by some zorro and interchange laws, is isomorphic to $$ \cong X \otimes X^\vee.$$

The last step, which I'll leave to you to enjoy, is to check that indeed the 2-morphisms I just constructed do supply an adjunction $coev \dashv coev^R$.

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    $\begingroup$ Thanks, this is fantastic! I will still have to digest the part relating (2) and (3), but the argument from (3) to (1) is very conceptual, and really more interesting anyway! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 7, 2023 at 16:56
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    $\begingroup$ Come to think of it, the lemma relating (2) and (3) also has a completely clear conceptual reason. Let’s restrict attention to the full subcategory of $\mathcal{C}$ on the 1-dualizable objects. Up to contractible choice, the assignment $X \mapsto X^\vee$ is well-defined. Is it a functor? Yes: given $f: X\to Y$, define $f^\vee: Y^\vee \to X^\vee$ by $f^\vee := (ev_Y \otimes X^\vee) \circ (Y^\vee \otimes f \otimes X^\vee) \circ (Y^\vee \otimes coev_X)$. Now it is easy to see that $(-)^\vee$ is contravariant on $1$-morphisms but covariant on $(\geq2)$-morphisms. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8, 2023 at 11:20
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    $\begingroup$ From the fact that functors preserve adjoints, and tracking the variance, you then find that in general, a 1-morphism $f$ is right-adjunctible iff $f^\vee$ is left-adjunctible. But, perhaps up to some $\sigma$s, $ev^\vee = coev$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8, 2023 at 11:22

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