This question is on the same topic of this one, but simpler, and I have also included some numerical tests here.
Consider a $h \times (n-1-h)$ matrix $A$ with all entries $a_{ij}$, $1 \le i \le h$, $1 \le j \le n-1-h$, equal to $0$ or $1$. We know that each row has $\lfloor (n+1) / 2 \rfloor - 1$ entries equal to $1$ and $n-\lfloor (n+1) / 2 \rfloor-h$ entries equal to $0$. All rows are different. Let $c(A)$ be the number of couples of columns with indexes $1 \le j_1 \lt j_2 \le n-1-h$ such that $a_{ij_1} = 1 \lor a_{ij_2} = 1$, $1 \le i \le h$. It's like there is a path of ones from the top to the bottom of the matrix along the $2$ columns of a couple. Let $\mathcal{A}(h,n)$ be the set of all those matrices for given $h,n$.
Let $$f(n) = \min_{1 \le h \le \lfloor n/2 \rfloor - 1, A \in \mathcal{A}(h,n)}{c(A)}.$$
I have computed the minimum for some values of $n$ based on 700000 random cases for each $h$ and $n$ to get an estimate $f_e(n)$ for $f(n)$. $f_e(n) \ge f(n)$. For $2 \le k \le 23$, $f_e(2k+1)$ is equal to: $3,6,10,15,21,28,36,45,55,61,68,74,80,84,89,94,95,96,103,109,106,105$ while $f_e(2k+2)$ is equal to: $3,6,10,15,21,28,36,45,55,53,58,62,68,71,74,79,82,80,86,90,91,89$.
For $k \le 10$, $f_e(2k+1) = f_e(2k+2)$, while for $k \gt 10$ it seems that $f_e(2k+1) > f_e(2k+2)$.
The minimum is located at $h = \lfloor n/2 \rfloor - 1$ for $k \le 10$, while for $k \gt 10$ it seems to move to $h \approx n/4$.
Now, for $2 \le k \le 10$ we can note that:
$$f_e(2k+1) = f_e(2k+2) = \binom{k+1}{2}$$
What happens for $k \gt 10$? Is it just a problem/error in the numerical random tests that the computed values does not follow the last equation? Is it actually
$$f(n) = \binom{\lceil n/2 \rceil}{2}?$$
If so, any hint for proving it? If not, is it possible to get a good lower bound for $f(n)$?