Let $(A, \Delta_A)$ and $(B, \Delta_B)$ be two compact quantum groups (in the sense of Woronowicz). I would be tempted to define a morphism $(A, \Delta_A) \to (B, \Delta_B)$ to be a unital $*$-morphism $$\pi: B \to A$$ such that $$(\pi \otimes \pi)\circ \Delta_B = \Delta_A \circ \pi.$$
However, in the literature, I read that this definition is not the 'right' one because there are analytical subtleties. Instead, such a morphism is defined to be a $*$-morphism $\pi: B_0 \to A_0$ satisfying $(\pi \otimes \pi)\Delta_B = \Delta_A \pi$ where $A_0$ and $B_0$ are the associated spaces of matrix coefficients of finite-dimensional unitary representations. Equivalently , we can translate this to a $*$-morphism $B_u \to A_u$ between the associated universal compact quantum groups in the sense that I proposed above.
What can go wrong with the definition I propose? Why is the definition with matrix coefficients the 'correct one'?
Also, for most purposes, having a $*$-morphism $B\to A$ respecting the comultiplications seems good enough, so I am confused why one chooses to work with the matrix coefficients instead. For practical purposes, this seems bad as one has to know a lot of information about the spaces of matrix coefficients involved.