Let $\mathcal{A}$ be an abelian category and let $X$ and $Y$ be objects in $\mathcal{A}$. The Yoneda $\text{Ext}^{n}(Y,X)$ is defined by the following:
First we consider the class $\text{E}^{n}(Y,X)$ of all exact sequences in $\mathcal{A}$ of the form $E : 0 \rightarrow X \rightarrow Z_{n} \rightarrow \cdots \rightarrow Z_{1} \rightarrow Y \rightarrow 0$. Then we defined two exact sequences $E$ and $E'$ in $\text{E}^{n}(Y,X)$ to be equivalent if there are exact sequences $E' = E_{0}, \ldots, E_{k} = E'$ in $\text{E}^{n}(Y,X)$ such that for each $0 \leqslant j \leqslant k-1$, there is either a morphism $E_{j} \rightarrow E_{j+1}$ or a morphism $E_{j+1} \rightarrow E_{j}$ with fixed ends. (Here by morphism with fixed ends I mean a morphism of complexes such that the left morphism $X \rightarrow X$ and the right morphism $Y \rightarrow Y$ are the identities.) Then we define $\text{Ext}^{n}(Y,X)$ to be the collection of equivalence classes in $\text{E}^{n}(Y,X)$ determined by the above relation (which is an equivalence relation).
However, I saw many texts in the internet which give another definition for the above equivalence relation (see for example definition 13.27.4 here). They say that $E$ and $E'$ are equivalent if there are morphisms with fixed ends $E \leftarrow E'' \rightarrow E'$ for some $E''$ in $\text{E}^{n}(Y,X)$. How can we prove that these definitions give rise to the same equivalence relation?
Obviously, if $E$ and $E'$ are equivalent by the second definition, then they are equivalent in the first definition, but how can we prove the converse?