Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P})$ be a probability space and let $X$ be a compact metric space. Let $F \colon \Omega \times X \to X$ and $\bar{F} \colon \Omega \times X \to X$ be measurable functions such that for each $\omega$, $F(\omega,\,\cdot\,) \colon X \to X$ is a homeomorphism with inverse $\bar{F}(\omega,\,\cdot\,) \colon X \to X$.
Suppose we have a probability measure $\rho$ on $X$ such that $$ \rho(A) \ = \ \mathbb{P} \otimes \rho(F^{-1}(A)) \ = \ \mathbb{P} \otimes \rho(\bar{F}^{-1}(A)) $$ for all $A \in \mathcal{B}(X)$. Does it follow that $\mathbb{P}$-almost every $\omega \in \Omega$ has the property that for all $A \in \mathcal{B}(X)$,
$\hspace{50mm} \rho(A) \ = \ \rho(\{x \in X : F(\omega,x) \in A\}) \ $?
(Note: It is sufficient to show that for each $A$, the above equality holds for $\mathbb{P}$-almost all $\omega$; the fact that the $\mathbb{P}$-full measure set can then be chosen independently of $A$ follows by standard results.)