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Let $(E,\pi,B)$ be a locally trivial fibration, with fiber a topological space $F$, $\Phi_i$ and $\Phi_j$ two trivializations over $U_i$ and $U_j$. The transition map from $i$ to $j$ is the homeomorphism $$\Phi_{ji} \colon U_i \cap U_j \times F \to U_i \cap U_j \times F, \quad (x,y) \mapsto (x,\phi_{ji,x}(y)), \quad \phi_{ji,x} \in Homeo(F).$$ Since $pr_2 \circ \Phi_{ji}$ is continuous, from the exponential law $Top(U_i \times F, F) \to Top(U_i \to F^F)$, with the compact-open topology on $F^F$ and its trace on $Homeo(F) \subset F^F$, there is a continuous map $$\phi_{ji} \colon U_i \cap U_j \to Homeo(F), \quad x \mapsto \phi_{ji,x}.$$ In general $Homeo(F)$ is not a topological group because in general the composition is not continuous (it is if $F$ is locally compact) and the inverse map is not continuous (it is if $F$ is compact, or non-compact but locally compact and locally connexe), and we cannot assume that the map $$\psi_{ji} \colon U_i \cap U_j \to Homeo(F), \quad x \mapsto \psi_{ji}(x) = (\phi_{ji,x})^{-1}$$ is continuous. But since $\Phi_{ji,x}$ is a homeomorphism, its inverse is the continuous map $$\Psi_{ij} \colon U_i \cap U_j \times F \to U_i \cap U_j \times F,\quad (x,y) \mapsto (x,\psi_{ij,x}(y)),\quad \psi_{ij,x} \in Homeo(F),$$ From the exponential law again, we get again a continuous map $$\psi_{ij} \colon U_i \cap U_j \to Homeo(F), \quad x \mapsto \psi_{ij,x},$$ and since it is obvious that $\psi_{ij,x} = (\phi_{ji,x})^{-1}$, we get that the map $\psi_{ij} \colon x \mapsto \psi_{ij,x} = (\phi_{ji,x})^{-1}$ is continuous.

So can we or can't we say that the map $x \mapsto (\phi_{ji,x})^{-1}$ is continuous in general ?

A similar reasonning can be made for composition : $x \in U_i \cap U_j \cap U_k \mapsto \phi_{ki,x} = \phi_{kj,x} \circ \phi_{ji,x}$ is continuous although the composition in $Homeo(F)$ is continuous only under conditions s.t. $F$ locally compact.

Is there something wrong hidden in what I say ? Or does that mean that the subset of $Homeo(F)$ image of the exponential (i.e. obtained through a continuous map like $\Phi_{ji}$) is in fact a topological group ?

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  • $\begingroup$ It seems you just showed that while continuity of the inverse doesn't follow from the structure of Homeo(F) alone, it does follow from the specific type of maps we get from fiber bundles. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 22, 2019 at 10:51

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I was thinking along the same lines, but I don't think it works. We do have a maps (using your notation) $$\phi_{ji} \colon U_i \cap U_j \to Homeo(F), \quad x \mapsto \phi_{ji,x}$$ and $$\psi_{ji} \colon U_i \cap U_j \to Homeo(F), \quad x \mapsto \psi_{ji}(x) = (\phi_{ji,x})^{-1}$$

But it doesn't necessarily mean that the map $$inv \colon Homeo(F) \to Homeo(F), \quad g \mapsto g^{-1}$$ is continuous, even if we replace $Homeo(F)$ by the subset/subgroup generated by all such maps $\phi_{ji,x}$.

We may also try to compose $\psi_{ji}^{-1} \circ \phi_{ji}$ to get a continuous map $Homeo(F) \to Homeo(F)$, but that doesn't work either, since $\phi_{ji}$ isn't necessarily injective.

The larger question we're working towards is whether the subset of $Homeo(F)$ generated by the $\phi$ maps is a topological group, even if $Homeo(F)$ isn't. Unfortunately, I don't think this is the case.

Let $F$ be a topological space and $Homeo(F)$ be its homeomorphism group with the compact-open topology, which may not be a topological group, i.e. whose composition or inversion maps may not be continuous.

Then consider the trivial bundle $Homeo(F) \times F \to F$. This has the obvious global trivialization \begin{align*} \Phi_{Id}: Homeo(F) \times F &\to Homeo(F) \times F \\ (p, x) &\mapsto (p, x) \end{align*} but for every $f \in Homeo(F)$, we have another global trivialization \begin{align*} \Phi_f: Homeo(F) \times F &\to Homeo(F) \times F \\ (p, x) &\mapsto (p, f(x)) \end{align*} with inverse $\Phi_{f^{-1}}$; note that the continuity of the inverse map doesn't come into play here, since $f$ isn't a function argument we're inverting.

Then the transition map of $\Phi_f \circ \Phi_{Id}^{-1}$ is simply $f$ itself, so we see that the subset of $Homeo(F)$ generated by the transition maps is simply $Homeo(F)$ itself. Therefore, if $Homeo(F)$ isn't a topological group, then this bundle shows that there exists a bundle which generates a subgroup of $Homeo(F)$ that also isn't a topological group.

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  • $\begingroup$ thx for answering this old question. In fact I think I was plain wrong when I wrote "But since Φji,x is a homeomorphism, its inverse is the continuous map...", it is true if the inverse is continuous in x... which is not. $\endgroup$
    – ychemama
    Commented Sep 21, 2023 at 11:23

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