$Let f=o(g)$ stand for $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)/g(x)=0$. It is simple to prove the following fact.
Proposition. Let $f_0,f_1:\mathbb{R}\to(0,\infty)$ be such that $f_0=o(f_1)$. Then there is a family of functions $(f_t)_{t\in[0,1]}$ such that $f_s=o(f_t)$ if $0\leq s<t\leq1$.
Proof. Consider $f_t=f_0^{1-t}f_1^t$.
I wonder if the following conjecture is also true.
Conjecture. Let $f_0,f_1:\mathbb{R}\to(0,\infty)$ be such that $f_0=o(f_1)$. Then there is a bounded totally ordered set $I$ and a family of functions $(f_i)_{i\in I}$ such that
- $|I|>\mathfrak{c}$,
- for every $i,j\in I$ with $i<j$ one has $|\{k\in I: i<k<j\}|=|I|$,
- $f_{\min I} = f_0$, $f_{\max I}=f_1$,
- for every $i,j\in I$ with $i<j$ one has $f_i=o(f_j)$.