I am a physics student and am interested in the study of invariant metrics. I have searched several textbooks, including those fat books of Krantz, but the following concern seems not to be mentioned in these books.
Let $\Omega\subset\mathbb{C}^{n}$ be an open, bounded domain. In literature, the Bergman distance between two points $z_{0}$ and $z_{1}$ (with $z_{0},z_{1}\in\Omega$) is defined by $$ d\left(z_{0},z_{1}\right):=\inf\left\{ l\left(\gamma\right):\gamma\in C^{1}\left(\left[0,1\right],\Omega\right),\gamma\left(0\right)=z_{0},\gamma\left(1\right)=z_{1}\right\} . $$ Here $$ l\left(\gamma\right):=\intop_{0}^{1}\sqrt{\sum_{j,k=1}^{n}\dfrac{\partial^{2}\left(\log K\left(\gamma\left(t\right),\gamma\left(t\right)\right)\right)}{\partial z_{j}\partial\overline{z}_{k}}\gamma'_{j}\left(t\right)\overline{\gamma'_{k}}\left(t\right)}dt, $$ and $K$ denotes the Bergman kernel of $\Omega$.
My question:
Is $\left(\Omega,d\right)$ a metric space? If so, is the topology induced by $d$ the standard topology on $\Omega$?