Maybe this is a question to naive for the MO community! For a projective smooth variety $X$ defined over a field $F$, and for simplicity let's assume $F$ is a number field. One way to define motivic cohomology is through $K$-theory \begin{equation} H^i_M(X,\mathbb{Q}(j))=K_{2j-i}(X)^{(j)}_{\mathbb{Q}} \end{equation} where $(j)$ means the eigenspace where Adam operators $\psi^k$ act as multiplication by $k^j$.
From the construction of higher $K$-theory and Adam operators, for a ring $A$, $K_l(A)^{(j)}$ only depends on the ring structure of $A$, and it has no dependence on whether we consider $A$ and an $L_1$-algebra through an embedding $L_1 \rightarrow A$ or $L_2$-algebra through $L_2 \rightarrow A$, where $L_1$ and $L_2$ are two different fields. So I guess this definition of motivic cohomology has no dependence on whether we consider $X$ as a variety over $F$ or a variety over a subfield (restriction of scalar), e.g. $\mathbb{Q}$.
On the other hand there are other constuctions of motivic cohomology of $X$, e.g. Bloch’s higher Chow groups and Voevodsky's construction, which indeed use the field $F$ in its constructions. I could not see whether $H^i_M(X,\mathbb{Q}(j))$ from these constructions has dependence on $X$ being considered as a variety over $F$ or over $\mathbb{Q}$. Anyone who can explain why?