Let $X\subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be an open set and let $Y\subseteq X$ be convex. Can I always construct an open and convex set $Z$ such that $Y\subseteq Z\subseteq X$?
Edit: As Ilya Bogdanov pointed out, the claim is wrong in general. But, what if $X$ is the interior of a finite union of polytopes? Any hint will be greatly appreciated.