1
$\begingroup$

Question:

1) How to determine the convergence of

$\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(k^{\alpha} x)}{k^{\alpha}} (-1)^k $

where $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and $\alpha \in (0,1]$. I am especially interested in the case of $\alpha = 1/2$.

2) For a fixed $\alpha$, if the above series converges for every $x$, is the convergence uniform? Is the resulting sum bounded in $x$?

I found the series tests (alternating test,etc.) I learned not useful in this situation, except that the convergence is clear for $x = 0$...

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ Looks like a lacunary Fourier series. Have you seen projecteuclid.org/euclid.bams/1183525927 already? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24, 2010 at 6:19
  • $\begingroup$ ...and this: archive.numdam.org/ARCHIVE/CM/CM_1962-1964__15_/… too; Kolmogorov's theorem seems to be the key. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24, 2010 at 6:21
  • $\begingroup$ thanks, but i thought lacunary means $a_k$ grows exponentially? here $k^{\alpha}$ does not. $\endgroup$
    – gondolier
    Commented Aug 24, 2010 at 6:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Have you tried things like the Van-Corput method? It should be applicable here ... $\endgroup$
    – Helge
    Commented Aug 24, 2010 at 7:11
  • $\begingroup$ @ Helge: Can you give me a reference please? I never heard of it before... $\endgroup$
    – gondolier
    Commented Aug 24, 2010 at 7:29

0

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .