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Informally the idea of this question is about whether the rules of set theory can be derived as a transfer of some rules from the hereditarily finite set realm, and whether this transfer principle itself can be coined for notions other than the "finite" notion?

The principle I want to negotiate is: "if $\phi$ is a property that is definable by a formula in the language of set theory that is strictly shorter than the shortest parameter free formula in that language that can define 'finiteness', then if $\phi$ is CLOSED on the the hereditarily finite set world, then it can be generalized over the whole realm of sets"!

The crude informal idea is that if a property that cannot mention finiteness generalizes over the whole hereditarily finite set realm, then it can go beyond it.

To formally capture that, I'll work up in a class theory, so we define "set" as an element of a class, the language of the theory is mono-sorted first order logic with identity and membership, we stipulate axioms of:

  1. Extensionality: as in ZF
  2. Class comprehension schema: $\forall x_1,..,x_n\ \exists x \ [x=\{y|set(y) \wedge \phi(y,x_1,..,x_n)\}] $
  3. The empty class is a set
  4. Singletons: $\forall x [ set(x) \to set(\{x\})]$
  5. Boolean Union: $\forall x,y [set(x) \wedge set(y) \to set (x \cup y)]$

Define: $$ fin(A) \iff \forall K [\exists o (o \in K \wedge \neg \exists m (m \in o)) \wedge \forall x (x \in A \to \exists y (y \in K \wedge x \in y \wedge \forall z (z \in y \to z=x))) \wedge \\ \forall a \forall b (a \in K \wedge b \in K \to \exists c (c \in K \wedge \forall d (d \in c\leftrightarrow d \in a \lor d \in b ))) \\ \to A \in K]$$

In English: $A$ is finite if and only if it is an element of every class $K$ that contains the empty set among its elements, is closed under Boolean union and that has the singletons of all elements of $A$ among its elements.

"I think this is along the shortest way to define "finite set" in this axiomatic theory whose language is first order logic with membership and equality using the customary four logical connectives.

Perhaps the above formula can be shortened further, or perhaps there is another shorter parameter free formulation of "x is a finite set" in the language of set theory, however for the sake of presentation here we'll take this formula to be the shortest formula defining finiteness.

  1. $ \forall x (x \text{ is hereditarily finite } \to set(x))$

Where "x is hereditarily finite" is defined as the transitive closure class of x being finite [Another definition is that x is finite and every element of the transitive closure of x is finite also].

We shall denote the class of all sets by $V$, and the class of all hereditarily fintie sets by $HF$

  1. $HF \in V$

  2. The principle of Transfer from the pure finite world: if $\phi(y,x)$ is a formula shorter than any formula defining finiteness, in which only symbols $``y,x"$ occur free, and those only occur free, then:

$\forall x [x \in HF \to \forall y (\phi(y,x) \to y \in HF)] \to \forall x \in V [ \forall y (\phi(y,x) \to y \in V)]$

Now it is clear that all axioms of Union, Power and Separation over sets are derivable from the above transfer principle, and so $ZC$ is interpretable here. Actaully IF we restrict $\phi$ to have no more than three atomic subformulas, so the principle would be written as:

8'. The principle of ternary Transfer from the pure finite world: if $\phi(y,x)$ is a formula having no more than three occurrences of atomic formulas in it, in which only symbols $``y,x"$ occur free, and those only occur free, then:

$\forall x [x \in HF \to \forall y (\phi(y,x) \to y \in HF)] \to \forall x \in V [ \forall y (\phi(y,x) \to y \in V)]$

THEN this would still be enough to interpret the whole of $ZC$! Moreover I think that the theory with this ternary version of the transfer principle can be proven to be consistent relative to $ZFC$.

Replacement is not interpretable by the above two principles. Yet, a minor modification of this principle might succeed in proving replacement over sets, this can be done by changing the closure property to involve only subsets of $HF$, what I call as "proximity closure over HF", so to restate that:

8".The principle of Transfer from proximity of the pure finite world: if $\phi(y,x)$ is a formula shorter than any formula defining finiteness, in which only symbols $``y,x"$ occur free, and those only occur free, then:

$\forall x [x \in HF \to \forall y \subseteq HF (\phi(y,x) \to y \in HF)] \to \forall x \in V [ \forall y (\phi(y,x) \to y \in V)]$

That replacement is provable can be shown from examining the following formula whose length is shorter than any formula defining finiteness.

$\exists F [\forall m (m \in F \to \exists a,b (a \in A \wedge b \in B \wedge a \in m \wedge b \in m)) \wedge \\ \forall m,n (m \in F \wedge n \in F \wedge \exists k(k \in m \wedge k \in n) \to n=m) \wedge \\ \forall b (b \in B \to \exists m (m \in F \wedge b \in m))]$

Now if $A$ is hereditarily finite and $B$ is a subset of $HF$ that fulfills the above formula, then $B$ is hereditarily finite, this mean that the property defined by the above formula is "proximity closed over the hereditarily finite world"

I don't have any proof of consistency of these principles, but if there is no clear inconsistency of those relative to $ZF$ or $MK$ or some extension of those, then could it be possible to think of extending that principle to properties other than "x is finite"? so we generalize it to some line properties, so for a property $P$ in that line, we stipulate that:

any predicate $Q$ that is closed over the pure $P$ world, would generalize over the whole set world,

or even stronger:

any predicate $Q$ that is proximity closed over the pure $P$ world, would generalize over the whole set world

Of course in both cases $Q$ must be expressible by a formula strictly shorter than the shortest expression defining property $P$, and also we stipulate parallel axioms sufficient to define the property $P$, also axioms asserting the element-hood of all hereditarily $P$ classes, and the existence of a set of all hereditarily $P$ sets. Of course this can only be done for some selected line of properties.

is that possible or it is involved with clear inconsistencies? and what would be the general qualification of such property $P$?

After-note: I have shorter definitions of finiteness and of subnumerousity, than the ones given here, those are:

Define: class $B$ is subnumerous to class $A$ if and only if:

$$\exists F \large{(} \normalsize \forall b [b \in B \to \exists a \exists f (a \in A \wedge f \in F \wedge b \in f \wedge a \in f \wedge \forall x (x \in f \to x=a \lor x=b))] \wedge \forall a [a \in A \to \exists z \forall m (m \in F \wedge a \in m \to m=z)] \large {)}$$

I think this can be further shortened to:

$$ \exists F [\forall b (b \in B \to \exists a (a \in A \wedge \exists f (f \in F \wedge a \in f \wedge b \in f) \wedge \forall x (\exists f (f \in F \wedge a \in f \wedge x \in f\wedge x \in B) \to x=b)))]$$

Define: class $a$ is said to be $finite$ iff: \begin{align} \forall k [&\exists m (m \in k)\\ &\land \forall x \forall y (x \in a \lor y \in k \to \forall z (\forall n (n \in z \to n=x \lor n \in y ) \to z \in k)) \\ & \to a \in k] \end{align}

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    $\begingroup$ Your definition doesn't seem to include the empty set as finite. Also, you say that you think your definition is the shortest way to define "finite" in the first-order language of set theory, but your definition is not in the first-order language of set theory, but rather in the second-order language of set theory, since you are using class quantifiers. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 14:21
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    $\begingroup$ But why not use the well-developed and widely understood theories, which seem fully capable of expressing the ideas you are trying to convey, instead of developing your own idiosyncratic notation and axioms? It seems to me that your questions would find a much better reception if you did so. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 18:27
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, any second-order theory can be deemed as a first-order theory, by considering the second-order part to be added explicitly as objects. But to my way of thinking, to do this is to abandon a useful distinction. For this reason, I find the one-sorted approaches to KM to be unhelpful, a distraction. In my experience, the experts who are currently seriously studying the various second-order set theories (and I know them; I myself have several papers analyzing this hierarchy) are careful to observe the first-order/second-order distinction. $\endgroup$ Commented May 1, 2018 at 11:35
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    $\begingroup$ Given the 23 changes to the question, with some edits explicitly designed to reject a proposed answer, I will wait to see if this survives beyond the bounty period; if so, I will vote to close as unclear what you’re asking. $\endgroup$
    – user44143
    Commented May 1, 2018 at 18:27
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    $\begingroup$ @Zuhair: an important part of asking a question is listening to the answer. $\endgroup$ Commented May 2, 2018 at 20:32

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Your transfer principle contradicts the axiom of foundation.

To see this, observe that under foundation, every nonempty finite set $x$ has an $\in$-maximal element, a set $z\in x$ with $z\notin u$ for any $u\in x$, since one can simply climb up via $\in$ inside $x$ until one reaches a maximal element.

But not every infinite set is like that, since the set HF of hereditarily finite sets itself, for example, has no $\in$-maximal elements.

Using this idea, we can produce a counterexample to your transfer principles under foundation. Let $\phi(y,x)$ assert that $x$ is not empty and if $x$ has an $\in$-maximal element, then $y\in x$. This can be expressed by a comparatively short formula. Namely, let $\phi(y,x)$ be the assertion $$(\exists z\ z\in x)\wedge[(\exists z\in x\ \forall u\in x\ z\notin u)\to y\in x].$$

If $x\in\text{HF}$ and $\phi(y,x)$, then $x$ is not empty and $y\in x$, since every nonempty element of $\text{HF}$ has $\in$-maximal elements. But there are sets $x$ in $V$ which are not empty, but have no $\in$-maximal elements, such as $x=\omega+\omega$, and in this case $\phi(y,x)$ holds for all $y$, including the case where $y$ is a proper class.

So this violates your transfer principles.

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  • $\begingroup$ No this won't affect this method since not every x that fulfills $\phi(x)$ is finite for example take the set $\omega$ union the triple singleton of $\empty$ $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 15:40
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, it seems unfortunately that your transfer principle applies to very few formulas of interest. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 20:29
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    $\begingroup$ Well, I've already shown that they contradict foundation, which is something that many people would want. And I would think you would mention GB or KM rather than ZF, since the whole point of your project is to have classes as objects. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 20:39
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    $\begingroup$ But without classes, then every $y$ is in $V$, so I don't really follow your remarks about not needing classes. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 30, 2018 at 22:12
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    $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins: I admire your patience! $\endgroup$
    – Jim Conant
    Commented May 2, 2018 at 17:10

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