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Dec 28, 2021 at 19:50 vote accept Zuhair Al-Johar
May 2, 2018 at 21:48 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar The answer did show something, that foundation is dismissed by this method! I still think it can be salvaged by upgrading the principle to include transfer from the pure countable world as well. I'll make a rewrite at a separate post to exposit that in a better manner
May 2, 2018 at 21:40 history bounty ended Zuhair Al-Johar
May 2, 2018 at 17:10 comment added Jim Conant @JoelDavidHamkins: I admire your patience!
May 1, 2018 at 17:57 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar by the way I think your answer doesn't touch the ternary transfer principle. I've edited the post to explicitly mention this principle. Actually I think the ternary transfer principle is consistent relative to ZFC
May 1, 2018 at 10:19 comment added Joel David Hamkins OK, I have edited to mention foundation.
May 1, 2018 at 10:18 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 1, 2018 at 6:59 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar your answer as it stands is wrong, so it needs to be corrected! by adding that foundation is assumed, or otherwise fix it by some other approach
May 1, 2018 at 6:45 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar I mean you can define a pure set theory (I mean a theory without classes, like ZF, NF, etc..) and you can add to it a modification of the transfer principle above, and also you can prove from it separation, replacement, union and power, however the approach would be more complex.
Apr 30, 2018 at 22:12 comment added Joel David Hamkins But without classes, then every $y$ is in $V$, so I don't really follow your remarks about not needing classes.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:47 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar Try to see it the other way. IF there no inconsistency involved with it [I myself greatly doubt that], then it would provide a motivation for ZF axioms that doesn't rely on foundation, actually it relies on ANTI-FOUNDATION.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:44 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar foundation is not a big problem, it can be interpreted anyway from those axioms.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:42 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar I think I can re-write this principle in the first-order language of set theory [in the usual sense]. The whole point is the TRANSFER principle and not to have classes as objects, this later piece is a just a tool to exposit that principle
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:39 comment added Joel David Hamkins Well, I've already shown that they contradict foundation, which is something that many people would want. And I would think you would mention GB or KM rather than ZF, since the whole point of your project is to have classes as objects.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:35 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar They might be few, but they are substantial, actually they are the formulas that can interpret the constructive axioms of the standard set theory ZF [union, power, separation, replacement], what else one would want really [perhaps infinity, but this is built-in it is what the transfer is all about, so its axiomatization is part of the background idea, so its justification "i.e. of infinity" is already "built-in" this line of thought]. However, I'm myself still suspicious of my own transfer principles, the chances are high that an inconsistency is there, but I don't know how, thus the question.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:29 comment added Joel David Hamkins Yes, it seems unfortunately that your transfer principle applies to very few formulas of interest.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:21 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar "easily" expressed? perhaps, I'm not sure, but I thought it means that every non empty subset of the transitive closure of x must have an element that is disjoint of it. This takes more than 8 atomic formulas, and you already have five in the above formula, a total of more than 13, so it is about the length of the shortest definition of finiteness.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:14 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, you don't have foundation. In that case, you can modify the formula simply to say that $x$ is nonempty and well-founded, rather than just nonempty (and this is easily expressed). This in effect moves to the well-founded part of your set-theoretic universe.
Apr 30, 2018 at 20:07 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar what about a Quine atom?
Apr 30, 2018 at 19:56 comment added Joel David Hamkins Every nonempty HF set has a $\in$-maximal element, since otherwise, you could keep going up in $\in$ inside the set, and get infinitely many elements that way.
Apr 30, 2018 at 19:54 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar Also wrong, but I generally think it can be modified to reach into your goals. The error is that not every non empty set in HF has a maximal element in the sense you've defined, but I think this can be salvaged really, and I think a modification of your argument would work. I'll look into it.
Apr 30, 2018 at 18:42 comment added Joel David Hamkins This answer works by using not a definition of finiteness, but rather a necessary property of all finite sets that is not necessary for all sets. And the point is that there is a such a property (having an $\in$-maximal element) that is expressible by a short formula, so that the overall formula is still short.
Apr 30, 2018 at 18:22 comment added Joel David Hamkins I posted a modified example, which I think is what you want.
Apr 30, 2018 at 18:22 history undeleted Joel David Hamkins
Apr 30, 2018 at 18:22 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 30, 2018 at 18:10 history deleted Joel David Hamkins via Vote
Apr 30, 2018 at 15:43 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, I understand a bit better, I think. Let me modify the example.
Apr 30, 2018 at 15:40 comment added Zuhair Al-Johar No this won't affect this method since not every x that fulfills $\phi(x)$ is finite for example take the set $\omega$ union the triple singleton of $\empty$
Apr 30, 2018 at 15:38 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 30, 2018 at 15:22 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0