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How large can the intersection of a parallelogram (or a square, if you prefer) with a triangle be, if each of them is of unit area? It is easy to see that the intersection can be of area 3/4 – is this the maximum? (It is not; see Joe's answer below. I now believe $2(\sqrt2−1)≈0.828427$ given by Joe is the correct answer.)

The analogous question can be asked in every dimension greater than 2, replacing parallelogram with parallelepiped (or cube, if you prefer) and triangle with a simplex or an affine square pyramid, each of unit volume.

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    $\begingroup$ I have asked a question about the numerical optimization of your problem on mathematica.stackexchange.com/questions/156677/… You might find it interesting $\endgroup$
    – yarchik
    Commented Oct 8, 2017 at 18:48
  • $\begingroup$ Very interesting indeed. Thank you. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2018 at 1:14
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    $\begingroup$ Joe's answer $2(\sqrt{2}-1)$ is indeed the optimal one. In fact, for any triangle with area $1$, one can always find a rectangle of area $1$ so that their intersection has area $2(\sqrt{2}-1)$. For a proof, see my answer to a similar question on math.SE. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 21, 2019 at 7:17
  • $\begingroup$ A parallel discussion of this question several years ago on /r/mathriddles: reddit.com/r/mathriddles/comments/37xj7i/… $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18, 2020 at 0:35

2 Answers 2

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I don't know if this is the optimal, but an isosceles triangle with base and height $\sqrt{2}$ overlaps $2 \left(\sqrt{2}-1\right) \approx 0.828427$ when placed as below, and so improves over $\frac{3}{4}$:


          SquareTri


Added. A tetrahedron formed from the above triangle and a point over the center of the cube. Just an image—no computations, no claims:


          CubeTetra
          Tetrahedron with same unit-area isosceles base, and height $3$.


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  • $\begingroup$ This looks like a good candidate for the answer in the plane, Joe. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 1:25
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    $\begingroup$ Curiously the unit square has the same overlap $2(\sqrt2-1)$ with an isosceles right triangle of side $\sqrt{2}$ placed so that its right angle coincides with one of the square's. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 2:21
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    $\begingroup$ @coudy But you have to move 2 vertices, not 1. How exactly do you move? $\endgroup$
    – yarchik
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 16:38
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    $\begingroup$ @Noam D. Elkies: your solution is the other, cut in half $\endgroup$
    – orangeskid
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 17:04
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    $\begingroup$ @yarchik If you move the tip as well as the base in such a way that the intersections with the vertical sides are unchanged, then the overlapping area does not change. This continuously deforms the one triangle into the other. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 29, 2017 at 6:34
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(I posted earlier a false solution which I have removed. Sorry for all this).

Perhaps the following is safe(?), while I'll prove the critical special case (discussed earlier by participants in this thread):

CONJECTURE   Let a triangle and a square, both having area $\ 1,\ $ have one edge of each parallel to the other one. Then the intersection of the square and the triangle has an intersection of maximal area for instance when the said edges are contained in the same straight line and both figures are on the same side of that line and the said edges have the same center and the said triangle has the height equal to $\ \sqrt 2\ $ (the @JosephO'Rourke example).

THEOREM If we restrict ourselves to the case of an isosceles triangle such that its base and a square edge are contained in the same straight line, and that the centers of the two edges coincide then O'Rourke's example provides the maximal intersection.

Let me start with an elementary lemma:

Lemma   Let positive $\ a\ b\in\Bbb R\ $ be such that $\ a\cdot b=\frac 12.\ $ Then $$ (1-a)^2 + (1-b)^2\ \ge\ 3-2\sqrt 2 $$

Proof

$$ (1-a)\cdot(1-b)\ =\ \frac 32 - (a+b)\ \le \ \frac 32 - 2\cdot\sqrt{a\cdot b}\ = \ \frac 32-\sqrt 2 $$

hence

$$ (1-a)^2 + (1-b)^2\ \ge\ 2\cdot(1-a)\cdot(1-b) \ \ge\ 3-2\cdot\sqrt 2 $$ End of Proof

Remark Our lemma features equality $\ \Leftrightarrow\ a=b=\frac 1{\sqrt{2}}.$

Proof of the THEOREM  (I'll keep applying Tales Theorem).

Let the length of the base be $\ 2\cdot x.\ $ When $\ x=1\ $ then we get the OP Wlodek's example with the intersection area $\ \frac 34.\ $ (We already know that it's not optimal).

When $\ x\ge 1\ $ then the area of the intersection is:

$$ 1\ -\ \left(\frac{x-\frac 12}x\right)^2\ =\ \frac 34\ + \ \left(\frac 12\right)^2 -\left(\frac{x-\frac 12}x\right)^2 $$

$$ =\,\ \frac 34\ -\ \frac {(x-1)\cdot(3\cdot x-1) } {(2\cdot x)^2} \,\ \le\,\ \frac 34 $$

for $\ x\ge 1.$ Thus, the situation is not better than for $\ x=1.$

Dually, let's now consider the case of $\ 0<x\le\frac 12.\ $ Then, the area of the intersection is equal:

$$ 1 - \left(\frac{\frac 1x-1}{\frac 1x}\right)^2 \ =\ 1-(1-x)^2\ = $$

$$ \frac 34 - (x-\frac 12)\cdot(x-\frac 32)\,\ \le \,\ \frac 34 $$ when $\ 0<x\le\frac 12.$

In the final intermediate case of $\ \frac 12\le x\le 1,\ $ the area of the intersection is as follows:

$$ 1\ -\ \left(\frac{x-\frac 12}x\right)^2 \ -\ \left(\frac{\frac 1x-1}{\frac 1x}\right)^2\ = $$

$$ 1\ -\ \left(1-\frac 1{2\cdot x}\right)^2 \ -\ (1-x)^2\ \le\ 2\cdot(\sqrt 2 - 1) $$

by lemma. And by Remark, this inequality is actually equality $\ \Leftrightarrow\ x=\frac 1{\sqrt 2}.$

End of Proof

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  • $\begingroup$ Dear reader of this answer, please make your window wide, so that you can see longer expressions. I could break them by additional lines but that would make the text seem annoyingly longer. $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Apr 12, 2020 at 13:15

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